Disaster Planning For Public Health

Assignment: Disaster Planning for Public Health

By Day 7 of Week 5

  • Select a potential natural or man-made disaster that could happen in your community. Then, write a 3- to 4-page paper about the disaster from the community nurse’s perspective.

Section 1: The Disaster, Man-Made or Natural

  • What disasters may strike your community and why? For example, do you live in “Tornado Alley,” or has climate change resulted in unusual cold weather snaps or blizzards in your community? Are you located in a flood plain? Include possible diseases that may result from a natural disaster, such as tetanus or cholera Disaster Planning For Public Health.

Section 2: The Nursing Response

  • Formulate responses to the disaster, considering systems and community levels of intervention.
  • Review websites where a disaster plan may be available for the public, or if one is not currently available, call public health department to see if a disaster plan exists for your community and what the plan contains.
  • In addition to reviewing websites for information about your local disaster plan, you will need to locate best practice/evidence-based practice guidelines in professional literature to determine whether your community’s disaster plan is as sound as it might be or if there is room for improvement.

Section 3: Is My Community Prepared for a Disaster?

Week 4: Evidence-Based Practice in Disaster Planning: Nurses as Leaders  

  • Public health surveillance is one way that public health officials target intervention strategies (Turlock, 2016). Often, it is through prompt recognition of and reporting of incidents of communicable disease that a disaster can be averted (Turlock, 2016). Surveillance activities often prompt questions such as, What is causing the disease? How is it spreading? And who is at risk (Turlock, 2016)? While it is true that preparedness planning cannot eliminate all traces of threat to a community, planning assures that medical services and treatment are deployed in an effective, efficient, and rapid manner (Turlock, 2016). Public health plays a vital role in coordination of providers, assurance of supplies particularly when the Strategic National Stockpile pharmaceuticals and supplies are required, and mobilization of state and national response systems. Public health officials may also provide health care services when required (Turlock, 2016).
  • Stanhope (2016) noted that evidence-based practice (EBP) has become more important in health care for many reasons: increased expectations of consumers, increased availability of information through the Internet, increased accountability for results, health care economic changes, and growing numbers of lawsuits, among other reasons. EBP is a lifelong problem-solving approach that regularly produces excellent results and often provides the theoretical underpinnings for programs to mitigate problems in the community. Once programs are in place, evaluation of their effectiveness should be conducted to determine whether they are worth the continued expenditure of resources. Use of EBP is vital to assure safe outcomes for populations during disasters, such as massive communicable disease outbreaks, and should be the foundation of disaster-planning strategies. Disaster Planning For Public Health

Required Readings

Stanhope, M., & Lancaster, J. (2016). Public health nursing: Population-centered health care in the community (9th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier.

  • Chapter 15, “Evidence-Based Practice” (pp. 342–354)
  • Chapter 23, “Public Health Nursing Practice and the Disaster Management Cycle” (pp. 503–528)
  • Chapter 24, “Public Health Surveillance and Outbreak Investigation” (pp. 529–544)
  • Chapter 25, “Program Management” (pp. 545–567)

Required Media  

  • Laureate Education (Producer). (2009a). Family, community and population-based care: Emergency preparedness and disaster response in community health nursing [Video file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.      
  • TED. (2012). How to step up in the face of disaster [Video file]. Retrieved from                   https://www.ted.com/talks/caitria_and_morgan_o_neill_how_to_step_up_in_the_face_of_disaster
  • This Ted Talk describes the actions of two sisters who step up as leaders during a tornado disaster in their community.

Epidemiology

Question 1 

Suppose that you are following a group of children for the development of asthma over a one- year period. You identify 100 children on January 1st, screen them for asthma, and set up a monitoring program to check on their status on a monthly basis. Five children are considered prevalent cases because they were diagnosed with asthma before January 1st. Ten children develop asthma on March 1st and another ten children develop asthma on July 1st. Another 10 children who remain healthy were followed for six months and then were lost to follow-up. All of the remaining children did not develop asthma and were not lost to follow-up. Follow-up ended on December 31st.

· What was the prevalence of asthma on June 1st?

· What was the prevalence of asthma on September 1st?

· How many person-months of observation were accrued by this population?

· What was the incidence rate of asthma in this population for the one-year period?

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Question 2 

A population of 1,000 people is monitored for a year for the development of measles. No one has measles at the start of the investigation. Thirty people develop measles on June 30 and twenty people develop measles on September 30. Eight people are lost to follow-up on March 31 and twenty-four people are lost to follow-up on November 30. None of those lost to follow-up had developed measles prior to becoming lost. Assume that you can only get measles once.

· What is the cumulative incidence of measles in this population?

· What is the incidence rate of measles?

· What is the prevalence of measles on July 1? Epidemiology

Question 3 

· Which type of measure of disease frequency best describes each of the following scenarios?

· Percentage of students enrolled in a college who developed influenza during the spring semester of 2012. 

· Percentage of students enrolled in an epidemiology class who had sore throats on the first day of class.

· Percent of breast cancer patients who underwent mastectomy during 2012.

· Percent of men found to have high blood pressure at their yearly physical.

· Number of newly-diagnosed cases of AIDS in a year per 100,000 persons.

· Percent of infants born with spina bifida out of 1,000 live-born infants.

· Percent of drivers found to be legally drunk at the time of their car accident.

Psychiatric Nursing

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics

1. The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice

1. Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals

1. Assessment and Diagnosis

1. The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame

1. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

1. Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy

1. Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation

1. Motivational Interviewing

1. Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice(2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.

1. Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”

1. Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”

1. Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”

1. Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”

1. Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)

1. Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy” Psychiatric Nursing

1. Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”

1. Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

Question 1

1. After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

  A. Disclose all patient information as requested
  B. Refuse to disclose any confidential information
  C. Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible
  D. Ignore the request based on ethical reasons

1 points  

Question 2

1. The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

  A. Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient
  B. Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient
  C. Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient
  D. None of the above

1 points  

Question 3

1. One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

  A. “Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”
  B. “Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”
  C. “Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”
  D. “Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”

1 points  

Question 4

1. The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

  A. Assessing safety
  B. Applying therapeutic communication
  C. Using empathy
  D. Maintaining the frame   32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

1 points  

Question 5

1. True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.

True

False

1 points  

Question 6

1. The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

  A. Allow the patient time to process before speaking.
  B. Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.
  C. Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”
  D. Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.” 

1 points  

Question 7

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

  A. Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious
  B. Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem
  C. Focusing the exploration on here and now
  D. None of the above

1 points  

Question 8

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

  A. Developing increased boundaries
  B. Decreasing supportive psychotherapy
  C. Scaling back contact with the patient
  D. Increasing the number of sessions per week

1 points  

Question 9

1. An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment. True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP  to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale. Psychiatric Nursing

True

False

1 points  

Question 10

1. A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

  A. “I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”
  B. “I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”
  C. “I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”
  D. “I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.” 

1 points  

Question 11

1. The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

  A. Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings
  B. Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator
  C. Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down
  D. Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator

1 points  

Question 12

1. A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

  A. adaptive regression in the service of the ego
  B. regulation and control of affects and impulses
  C. defensive and interpersonal functioning
  D. sense of reality of the world and of the self

1 points  

Question 13

1. The PMHNP meets with a 47-year-old male patient who is fearful of leaving the house after having witnessed his neighbor getting run over by a car. When the PMHNP asks why he is afraid to leave his house, the patient replies, “Because another accident might occur.” Which cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) strategy does the PMHNP employ?

  A. Pharmacological therapy
  B. Stress inoculation therapy
  C. Dialectical behavior therapy
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 14

1. A 62-year-old patient has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. Upon assessment, the PMHNP learns that he  participates in spending sprees and occasional binge eating, accompanied by rapid changes in self-image. Which evidence-based psychotherapeutic model does the PMHNP identify as effective and beneficial?

  A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
  B. Supportive therapy
  C. Dialectical behavior therapy
  D. Expressive therapy

1 points  

Question 15

1. The PMHNP is working with a patient who witnessed her father pass away after suffering for several months from terminal cancer. The PMHNP sees this as a traumatic event. The patient reports sometimes feeling out of touch with surroundings; almost as if things feel like a dream. “Sometimes that sensation lingers for a while,” the patient says, “and other times I snap out of it quickly.” What does the PMHNP infer about the condition based on psychotherapy concepts for trauma?

  A. The patient is having a balanced response to the trauma.
  B. The patient is reporting signs of dissociation.
  C. The patient is becoming unresponsive to the environment.
  D. All of the above.

1 points  

Question 16

1. The patient is a 56-year-old female patient diagnosed with panic disorder and reports symptoms that include heart palpitations, frequent trembling, and feelings of choking in stressful situations. What special consideration does the PMHNP make?

  A. Using a special focus on transference as the agent promoting change
  B. Confronting the emotional significance of the patient’s symptoms
  C. Employing psychodynamic therapy combined with pharmacotherapy
  D. A and B

1 points  

Question 17

1. The PMHNP is meeting with a 38-year-old divorced, single mother who has been seeing the PMHNP for anxiety and anger management. During one of the sessions, the patient tells the PMHNP that she is having a problem getting her child support payments from her ex-husband, which is triggering increased anxiety and anger, which she admittedly takes out on her children. How does the PMHNP respond in a way that upholds the supportive psychodynamic psychotherapy approach? Psychiatric Nursing

  A. Telling the patient to take a vacation to get away and relax
  B. Suggesting that she seek legal help
  C. Giving her advice about men and how to get them to pay child support
  D. Suggesting that the patient start going to church to help find more solace.

1 points  

Question 18

1. During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

  A. Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories
  B. Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly
  C. Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears
  D. Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too

1 points  

Question 19

1. The PMHNP is working with an adult patient who has somatic complaints caused by a history of childhood abuse. As part of the therapeutic process, what does the PMHNP do to assess and organize a trauma history?

  A. Interview the patient’s family members
  B. Construct a timeline of the patient’s life
  C. Review the patient’s current stressors
  D. Debrief with the patient

1 points  

Question 20

1. During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

  A. Narcissistic personality disorder
  B. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
  C. Borderline personality disorder
  D. Paranoid personality disorder

1 points  

Question 21

1. A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

  A. Share a personal story about her home situation and family members
  B. Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining
  C. Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress
  D. None of the above

1 points  

Question 22

1. A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.

True

False

1 points  

Question 23

1. The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

  A. Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated
  B. Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort
  C. Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 24

1. A PMHNP has been working with a young female patient who suffers from depression to change self-defeating behaviors Psychiatric Nursing. By creating a presence of acceptance and using good listening skills, the PMHNP’s overall goal is to __________.

  A. deepen the patient’s understanding of herself in order to cultivate empowerment
  B. slowly transfer authority to the patient when the PMHNP feels that she is ready
  C. remain caring, yet authoritative by making important decisions for the patient
  D. all of the above

1 points  

Question 25

1. During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

  A. “Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”
  B. “When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and  how does it feel to you?”
  C. “What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”
  D. “So you blow up when you become frustrated?”

1 points  

Question 26

1. The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

  A. Countertransference
  B. Therapeutic communication
  C. Empathy
  D. Boundaries

1 points  

Question 27

1. A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

  A. “How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”
  B. “How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”
  C. “How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”
  D. All of the above.

1 points  

Question 28

1. A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

  A. Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions
  B. Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws
  C. Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 29

1. A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

  A. Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety
  B. Giving the patient basic stress management activities
  C. Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 30

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

  A. Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization
  B. Help the patient process painful memories
  C. Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth
  D. Assist the patient in planning for the future

1 points  

Question 31

1. The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

  A. employ cognitive behavioral therapy
  B. use empathy
  C. utilize intersubjectivity
  D. none of the above

1 points  

Question 32

1. The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

  A. Therapeutic communication
  B. Maintaining the frame
  C. Working with resistance
  D. None of the above

1 points  

Question 33

1. During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with: Psychiatric Nursing

  A. “Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”
  B. “No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”
  C. “Sort of like a fish out of water?”
  D. “When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?” 

1 points

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Question 34

1. The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

  A. “If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”
  B. “Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”
  C. ”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”
  D. “Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”

1 points  

Question 35

1. At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report. True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.

True

False

1 points  

Question 36

1. An initial evaluation reveals that an 11-year-old patient has moved to a new school after her parents’ recent divorce, and is having trouble making friends. The patient has normal mental status and exhibits appropriate behavior. What is the most appropriate scale for the PMHNP  to use to get more information?

  A. Young Mania Rating Scale
  B. Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale
  C. Dissociative Experiences Scale
  D. Impact of Event Scale

1 points  

Question 37

1. The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

  A. Autognosis
  B. Complementary identification
  C. Concordant identification
  D. Self-disclosure

1 points  

Question 38

1. The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

  A. Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient
  B. Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization
  C. Reducing the patient’s anxiety
  D. Strengthening the patient’s defenses

1 points  

Question 39

1. The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

  A. Emphasize the past
  B. Focus on expressions of emotion
  C. Identify patterns in relationships
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 40

1. A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.  True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.

True

False

1 points  

Question 41

1. A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

  A. may lack ability to see independent motivations
  B. has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others
  C. has an intrusive interpersonal relationship
  D. all of the above

1 points  

Question 42

1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

  A. “I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”
  B. “I prefer doing everything on my own.”
  C. “It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”
  D. “I can’t seem to do anything on my own.” 

1 points  

Question 43

1. A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

  A. “It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”
  B. “I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”
  C. “You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”
  D. None of the above. Psychiatric Nursing

1 points  

Question 44

1. True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.

True

False

1 points  

Question 45

1. A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

  A. Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust
  B. Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself
  C. Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic
  D. None of the above

1 points  

Question 46

1. The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

  A. Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event
  B. Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is
  C. Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 47

1. The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

  A. “I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”
  B. “I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”
  C. “I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”
  D. “I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.” 

1 points  

Question 48

1. A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

  A. “Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”
  B. “Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”
  C. “Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”
  D. “Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”

1 points  

Question 49

1. When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history. True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”

True

False

1 points  

Question 50

1. A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

  A. Revise intake forms to align with state laws
  B. Review confidentiality revisions with patients
  C. Have patients give informed consent again
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 51

1. A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

  A. mindfulness techniques
  B. deep breathing exercises
  C. self-regulation strategies
  D. all of the above

1 points  

Question 52

1. A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

  A. overly nurturing
  B. nonassertive
  C. exploitable
  D. vindictive

1 points  

Question 53

1. The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

  A. Observes and points out the behavior
  B. Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak
  C. Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk
  D. None of the above

1 points  

Question 54

1. The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

  A. Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled
  B. Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs
  C. Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks
  D. Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)

1 points  

Question 55

1. In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep Psychiatric Nursing. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

  A. Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness
  B. Maintain a warm bedroom temperature
  C. Avoid watching television or reading in bed
  D. Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony 

1 points  

Question 56

1. A 35-year-old patient has been seeking treatment for depression for several months. The PMHNP does an assessment to see if processing has led to adaptive change. The patient’s self-references are positive in relation to past events, work is productive, relationships are adaptive, and there is congruence between behavior, thoughts, and affect. Based on this information, the PMHNP decides the patient ____________.

  A. will require more processing strategies
  B. would benefit from the stabilization stage
  C. is ready to move to Stage III, future visioning
  D. no longer needs to continue with therapy

1 points  

Question 57

1. The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

  A. Provide safety through case management strategies
  B. Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions
  C. Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences
  D. Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma

1 points  

Question 58

1. Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

  A. assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning
  B. explore the interpersonal styles of each family member
  C. provide background information for the patient’s family structure
  D. measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity

1 points  

Question 59

1. During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

  A. “Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”
  B. “Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”
  C. “You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”
  D. “What has your wife done to make you believe this?” 

1 points  

Question 60

1. The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

  A. Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep
  B. Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake
  C. Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime
  D. Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep

1 points  

Question 61

1. The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

  A. Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension
  B. Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up
  C. Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 62

1. The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

  A. Progressive muscle relaxation exercises
  B. Paradoxical interventions
  C. Biofeedback
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 63

1. A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

  A. “What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”
  B. “To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”
  C. “What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”
  D. All of the above.

1 points  

Question 64

1. An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

  A. “Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”
  B. “Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”
  C. “Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”
  D. “How can Joel feel that he is loved?”

1 points  

Question 65

1. The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion? Psychiatric Nursing

  A. “I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”
  B. “I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”
  C. “I like to listento the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t  need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”
  D. “I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.” 

1 points  

Question 66

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

  A. Group therapy
  B. Controlled confrontation
  C. A safe-place exercise
  D. Body and energy work

1 points  

Question 67

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

  A. Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states
  B. Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer
  C. Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings
  D. Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states

1 points  

Question 68

1. The PMHNP understands that anxiety and depression are two disorders in which their symptoms may overlap. When discussing this, you explain that the autonomic nervous system is activated and further helps distinguish anxiety symptoms by making the following points:

  A. “You may experience an elevated heart rate, constant worrying, and diarrhea.”
  B. “You may experience fear, sweating, and muscle tension.”
  C. “You may experience an elevated heart rate, the need to urinate, and fear.”
  D. “You may experience sleepiness, decreased blood pressure, and fear.” 

1 points  

Question 69

1. The PMHNP is working with a patient who has dissociative disorder and requests pharmacological interventions for dealing with her trauma. What education does the PMHNP provide to the patient regarding medication therapy?

  A. “The medication will help you forget the things that trigger your flashbacks.”
  B. “The medication takes a while to build up in your system and cure you.”
  C. “The medication may provide symptom relief, but you still need psychotherapy.”
  D. All of the above.

1 points  

Question 70

1. When a PMHNP is seeing a patient for the first time, what is an important step to assure that the patient and provider understand the limits of their discussion?

  A. Assure the patient that she is safe to discuss her secrets
  B. Talk about the importance of being truthful and open
  C. Have a discussion about the confidentiality and its limits
  D. Mention the possible need for selective self-disclosure

1 points  

Question 71

1. During a clinical assessment of a 15-year-old patient, the PMHNP asks, “How can I help you?” The patient answers by saying, “Honestly, I don’t really think I need any help.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the PMHNP?

  A. “That’s fine. Can you describe the depressive symptoms you’ve been having the past few months?”
  B. “Since you’re already here, maybe we can try to figure out if there is anything else I can help you with.”
  C. “You wouldn’t be here if you didn’t actually need help, right? So tell me, how can I be of assistance?”
  D. None of the above.

1 points  

Question 72

1. You are seeing a 29-year-old widow whose husband recently died overseas while serving his country in the military. She has been mourning the loss of her husband for several months, and continues to grieve. She refuses to go to group grieving sessions, but reports that she is still able to go to work and her fitness classes sometimes, and even makes attempts to stay social. She says, “Sometimes it’s like he’s not even gone. Other times it feels like it’s been an eternity since I’ve seen him. It’s hard to talk about this type of stuff with my girlfriends, especially since all of their husbands are still alive.” The PMHNP understands that it is appropriate to employ which therapeutic principle?

  A. Encouraging catharsis
  B. Encouraging abreaction to repressed feelings
  C. Identifying conflict-resolution techniques
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 73

1. When the patient comes into the office, she says, “I just saw a friend of mine out in the waiting room. What’s wrong with him?” The PMHNP says, “He’ll be fine. He has mild depression.” Which of the following statement is correct related to confidentiality rights?

  A. The PMHNP was not protecting patient confidentially rights.
  B. The PMHNP was not using identifying information in the patient situation above.
  C. Because the patient signed a consent form, the PMHNP was legally allowed to share information.
  D. The PMHNP’s response was ethical and legal because she was trying to answer the question.

1 points  

Question 74

1. The PMHNP is working with a school-aged child who has been diagnosed with depression. The child has attended several sessions with the PMNHP, but recently presents with avoidant behavior by showing increased distress and being late to sessions. What approach does the PMHNP need to employ with the child to continue making therapeutic progress?

  A. Remaining quiet until the child is ready to talk
  B. Using communication techniques that are expressive
  C. Inviting the child’s parents to speak on behalf of the child
  D. All of the above

1 points  

Question 75

1. A 24-year-old female patient presents for her initial appointment with the PMHNP. Which action will the PMHNP take to establish therapeutic alliance? Psychiatric Nursing

  A. Validating the patient’s affect
  B. Asking the patient questions about her main concerns
  C. Establishing a therapy process
  D. All of the above

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians

Question

1. Question :

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Ibandronate (Boniva)

Calcium carbonate

Raloxifene (Evista)

Question 2. Question :

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses

Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses

Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

Question 3. Question :

Some research supports that testosterone replacement therapy may be indicated in which of the following diagnoses in men?

Age-related decrease in cognitive functioning

Metabolic syndrome

Decreased muscle mass in aging men

All of the above

Question 4. Question :

The chemicals that promote the spread of pain locally include _________.

serotonin

norepinephrine

enkephalin

neurokinin A

Question 5. Question :

The DEA:

Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

Regulates NP prescribing at the state level

Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label

Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

Question 6. Question :

The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

forty-eight hours Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians

four to six days

four weeks

two months

Question 7. Question :

The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:

The kidneys

The lungs

The bile and feces

The skin

Question 8. Question :

Compelling indications for an ACE inhibitor as treatment for hypertension based on clinical trials include:

ORDER A FREE-PLAGIARISM PAPER HERE

Pregnancy

Renal parenchymal disease

Stable angina

Dyslipidemia

Question 9. Question :

The American Diabetic Association has recommended which of the following tests for ongoing management of diabetes?

Fasting blood glucose

Hemoglobin A1c

Thyroid function tests

Electrocardiograms

Question 10. Question :

The angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ ADR.

A

B

C

D

Question 11. Question :

The goals of therapy when prescribing HRT include reducing:

Cardiovascular risk

Risk of stroke or other thromboembolic event

Breast cancer risk

Vasomotor symptoms

Question 12. Question :

Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

Nitrates

Beta blockers

ACE inhibitors

Calcium channel blockers

Question 13. Question :

The New York Heart Association and the Canadian Cardiovascular Society have described grading criteria for levels of angina. Angina that occurs with unusually strenuous activity or on walking or climbing stair after meals is:

Class I

Class II

Class III

Class IV

Question 14. Question :

Patients with allergic rhinitis may benefit from a prescription of:

Fluticasone (Flonase)

Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

OTC cromolyn nasal spray (Nasalcrom)

Any of the above

Question 15. Question :

Kyle has Crohn’s disease and has a documented folate deficiency. Drug therapy for folate deficiency anemia is:

Oral folic acid 1 to 2 mg/day

Oral folic acid 1 gm/day

IM folate weekly for at least six months

Oral folic acid 400 mcg daily

Question 16. Question :

The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

2 gm/day of oral cobalamin

100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM

500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week

Question 17. Question :

Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect

Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down

Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

Must be taken no more than twice a day

Question 18. Question :

Type II diabetes is a complex disorder involving:

Absence of insulin production by the beta cells

A suboptimal response of insulin-sensitive tissues in the liver

Increased levels of GLP in the postprandial period

Too much fat uptake in the intestine

Question 19. Question :

Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type II diabetes because it:

Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas

Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

Increases the release of insulin from beta cells

Decreases peripheral glucose utilization

Question 20. Question :

Gender differences between men and women in pharmacokinetics include:

More rapid gastric emptying so that drugs absorbed in the stomach have less exposure to absorption sites

Higher proportion of body fat so that lipophilic drugs have relatively greater volumes of distribution

Increased levels of bile acids so that drugs metabolized in the intestine have higher concentrations

Slower organ blood flow rates so that drugs tend to take longer to be excreted

Question 21. Question :

If not chosen as the first drug in hypertension treatment, which drug class should be added as the second step because it will enhance the effects of most other agents?

ACE inhibitors

Beta blockers

Calcium channel blockers

Diuretics

Question 22. Question :

A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

Excessive weight gain

Hypertension

Potentially fatal agranulocytosis

Question 23. Question :

Levetiracetam has known drug interactions with:

Oral contraceptives

Carbamazepine

Warfarin

Few, if any, drugs

Question 24. Question :

When the total daily insulin dose is split and given twice daily, which of the following rules may be followed?

Give two-thirds of the total dose in the morning and one-third in the evening.

Give 0.3 units/kg of premixed 70/30 insulin, with one-third in the morning and two-thirds in the evening.

Give 50% of an insulin glargine dose in the morning and 50% in the evening.

Give long-acting insulin in the morning and short-acting insulin at bedtime.

Question 25. Question :

Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

Complexity of the drug regimen

Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 26. Question :

The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:

Steady state

Half-life

Phase II metabolism

Reduced bioavailability time

Question 27. Question :

Drugs that are absolutely contraindicated in lactating women include:

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine

Antineoplastic drugs such as methotrexate

All of the above

Question 28. Question :

Tobie presents to clinic with moderate acne. He has been using OTC benzoyl peroxide at home with minimal improvement. A topical antibiotic (clindamycin) and a topical retinoid adapalene (Differin) are prescribed. Education of Tobie would include which one of the following instructions?

He should see an improvement in his acne within the first two weeks of treatment.

If there is no response in a week, he should double the daily application of adapalene (Differin).

He may see an initial worsening of his acne that will improve in six to eight weeks.

Adapalene may cause bleaching of clothing.

Question 29. Question :

Martin is a sixty-year-old with hypertension. The first-line decongestant to be prescribed would be:

Oral pseudoephedrine

Oral phenylephrine

Nasal oxymetazoline

Nasal azelastine

Question 30. Question :

A woman who is pregnant and has hyperthyroidism is best managed by a specialty team that will most likely treat her with:

Methimazole.

Propylthiouracil.

Radioactive iodine.

Nothing; treatment is best delayed until after her pregnancy ends.

Question 31. Question :

A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A

C

E

G

Question 32. Question :

Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines

Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance

Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol

Question 33. Question :

Steady state is:

The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion

When the amount of drug in the body remains constant

When the amount of drug in the body stays below the minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

All of the above

Question 34. Question :

Jayla is a nine-year-old who has been diagnosed with migraines for almost two years. She is missing up to a week of school each month. Her headache diary confirms she averages four or five migraines per month. Which of the following would be appropriate?

Prescribe amitriptyline (Elavil) daily, start at a low dose and increase the dose slowly every two weeks until effective in eliminating migraines.

Encourage her mother to give her Excedrin Migraine (aspirin, acetaminophen, and caffeine) at the first sign of a headache to abort the headache.

Prescribe propranolol (Inderal) to be taken daily for at least three months.

Explain that it is rare for a nine-year-old to get migraines and that she needs an MRI to rule out a brain tumor.

Question 35. Question :

Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Meclizine (Antivert)

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Question 36. Question :

Long-term use of PPIs may lead to:

Hip fractures in at-risk persons

Vitamin B6 deficiency

Liver cancer

All of the above

Question 37. Question :

Many patients self-medicate with antacids. Which patients should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate antacids without discussing with their providers or a pharmacist first?

Patients with kidney stones

Pregnant patients

Patients with heartburn

IN Postmenopausal women

0 of 2.5

Question 38. Question :

Beta blockers treat hypertension because they:

Reduce peripheral resistance.

Vasoconstrict coronary arteries.

Reduce norepinephrine.

Reduce angiotensin II production.

Question 39. Question :

Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:

Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy

Using tamper-proof papers for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs

Keeping any presigned prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians

Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed

Question 40. Question :

The tricyclic antidepressants should be prescribed cautiously in patients with:

Eczema

Asthma

Diabetes

Heart disease

Question 41. Question :

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

Beta blockers

Diuretics

Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Question 42. Question :

Metoclopramide improves GERD symptoms by:

Reducing acid secretion

Increasing gastric pH

Increasing lower esophageal tone

Decreasing lower esophageal tone

Question 43. Question :

Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:

Instructions written at the high school reading level

Discussion of expected ADRs

How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics

Verbal instructions always in English

Question 44. Question :

If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens

A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days

A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days

Question 45. Question :

A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose

Systemic corticosteroid burst

Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists

Leukotriene therapy

Question 46. Question :

Angela is a black woman who has heard that women of African descent do not need to worry about osteoporosis. What education would you provide Angela about her risk?

She is ; black women do not have much risk of developing osteoporosis due to their dark skin.

Black women are at risk of developing osteoporosis due to their lower calcium intake as a group.

If she doesn’t drink alcohol, her risk of developing osteoporosis is low.

If she has not lost more than 10% of her weight lately, her risk is low.

Question 47. Question :

The role of the nurse practitioner in the use of herbal medication is to:

Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies.

Recommend common OTC herbs to patients.

Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care.

Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers.

Question 48. Question :

Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension, and an ACE inhibitor is determined to be needed. Prior to prescribing this drug, the nurse practitioner should assess for:

Hypokalemia

Impotence

Decreased renal function

Inability to concentrate

Question 49. Question :

Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions

Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes

Question 50. Question :

Off-Label prescribing is:

Regulated by the FDA

Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)

Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

Regulated by the DEA

Question 51. Question :

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.

Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.

If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.

Question 52. Question :

Prior to starting antidepressants, patients should have laboratory testing to rule out:

IN Hypothyroidism

Anemia

Diabetes mellitus

Low estrogen levels

0 of 2.5

Question 53. Question :

What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion

Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing

Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not

Question 54. Question :

All diabetic patients with hyperlipidemia should be treated with:

3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitors

Fibric acid derivatives

Nicotinic acid

Colestipol

Question 55. Question :

Treatment failure in patients with PUD associated with H. pylori may be due to:

Antimicrobial resistance

Ineffective antacid

Overuse of PPIs

All of the above

Question 56. Question :

To improve positive outcomes when prescribing for the elderly, the NP should:

Assess cognitive functioning in the elder

Encourage the patient to take a weekly “drug holiday” to keep drug costs down

Encourage the patient to cut drugs in half with a knife to lower costs

All of the above options are

Question 57. Question :

Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)

Retapamulin (Altabax)

Oral cephalexin (Keflex)

Question 58. Question :

Nonselective beta blockers and alcohol create serious drug interactions with insulin because they:

Increase blood glucose levels.

Produce unexplained diaphoresis.

Interfere with the ability of the body to metabolize glucose.

Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose levels.

Question 59. Question :

Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:

Immature renal function in school-age children

Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population

Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication

Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution

Question 60. Question :

Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

Toxic levels of warfarin building up

Decreased response to warfarin

Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin

Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

Question 61. Question :

Jose is a twelve-year-old overweight child with a total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL and LDL of 125 mg/dL. Along with diet education and recommending increased physical activity, a treatment plan for Jose would include ____ with a reevaluation in six months.

statins

niacin

sterols

bile acid-binding resins

Question 62. Question :

A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.

The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.

Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.

Question 63. Question :

Amber is a twenty-four-year-old who has had migraines for ten years. She reports a migraine on average of once a month. The migraines are effectively aborted with naratriptan (Amerge). When refilling Amber’s naratriptan education would include which of the following?

Naratriptan will interact with antidepressants, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and St John’s Wort, and she should inform any providers she sees that she has migraines.

Continue to monitor her headaches; if the migraine is consistently happening around her menses, then there is preventive therapy available.

Pregnancy is contraindicated when taking a triptan.

All the given options are correct.

Question 64. Question :

One of the main drug classes used to treat acute pain is NSAIDs. They are used due to which of the following reasons? Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians

They have less risk for liver damage than acetaminophen.

Inflammation is a common cause of acute pain.

They have minimal GI irritation.

Regulation of blood flow to the kidney is not affected by these drugs.

Question 65. Question :

A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution

A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use

Hypercalcemia

Question 66. Question :

Sulfonylureas may be added to a treatment regimen for type II diabetics when lifestyle modifications and metformin are insufficient to achieve target glucose levels. Sulfonylureas have been moved to Step 2 therapy because they:

Increase endogenous insulin secretion.

Have a significant risk for hypoglycemia.

Address the insulin resistance found in type II diabetics.

Improve insulin binding to receptors.

Question 67. Question :

Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord

attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain

increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary

Question 68. Question :

Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

serum glucose

stool culture

folate levels

vitamin B12

Question 69. Question :

Henry presents to clinic with a significantly swollen, painful great toe and is diagnosed with gout. Of the following, which would be the best treatment for Henry?

High-dose colchicines

Low-dose colchicines

High-dose aspirin

Acetaminophen with codeine

Question 70. Question :

Jaycee has been on escitalopram (Lexapro) for a year and is willing to try tapering off of the selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors. What is the initial dosage adjustment when starting a taper off antidepressants?

Change the dose to every other day dosing for a week.

Reduce the dose by 50% for three to four days.

Reduce the dose by 50% every other day.

Escitalopram (Lexapro) can be stopped abruptly due to its long half-life.

Question 71. Question :

Christy has exercise and mild persistent asthma and is prescribed two puffs of albuterol fifteen minutes before exercise and as needed for wheezing. One puff per day of beclomethasone (Qvar) is also prescribed. Teaching regarding her inhalers includes which one of the following?

She should use one to two puffs of albuterol per day to prevent an attack, with no more than eight puffs per day.

Beclomethasone needs to be used every day to treat her asthma.

She should report any systemic side effects she is experiencing, such as weight gain.

She should use the albuterol MDI immediately after her corticosteroid MDI to facilitate bronchodilation.

Question 72. Question :

Asthma exacerbations at home are managed by the patient by:

Increasing the frequency of beta 2 agonists and contacting his or her provider

Doubling inhaled corticosteroid dose

Increasing the frequency of beta 2 agonists

Starting montelukast (Singulair)

Question 73. Question :

A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

Estrogen/progesterone combination

Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)

Estrogen alone

Androgens

Question 74. Question :

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Ibandronate (Boniva)

Calcium carbonate

Raloxifene (Evista)

Question 75. Question :

Patient education when prescribing the vitamin D3 derivative calcipotriene for psoriasis includes:

Applying calcipotriene thickly to affected psoriatic areas two to three times a day

Applying a maximum of 100 grams of calcipotriene per week

Not using calcipotriene in combination with its topical corticosteroids

Augmenting calcipotriene with the use of coal-tar products

Question 76. Question :

Both ACE inhibitors and some angiotensin-II receptor blockers have been approved in treating:

Hypertension in diabetic patients

Diabetic nephropathy

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 77. Question :

Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

Niacin (Niaspan)

Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)

Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

Question 78. Question :

Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

“Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration

Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension

Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma

Question 79. Question :

Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded

Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 80. Question :

Which one of the below-given instructions can be followed for applying a topical antibiotic or antiviral ointment?

Apply thickly to the infected area, spreading the medication well past the borders of the infection

If the rash worsens, apply a thicker layer of medication to settle down the infection

Wash hands before and after application of topical antimicrobials

None of the above

Question 81. Question :

Sadie is a ninety-year-old patient who requires a new prescription. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing for Sadie?

Increased volume of distribution

Decreased lipid solubility

Decreased plasma proteins

Increased muscle-to-fat ratio

Question 82. Question :

First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

Oral terbinafine

Oral griseofulvin microsize

Nystatin cream or ointment

Question 83. Question :

Which of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule?

It produces bradycardia and should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac conditions that a slower heart rate might worsen.

GI adverse effects are common, so the drug should be taken with food.

Adherence can be improved by using a sustained-release formulation that can be given once daily.

Doses of this drug should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level.

Question 84. Question :

A nurse practitioner would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a six-year-old because:

Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach.

A six-year-old may have problems swallowing a pill.

Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect.

Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form.

Question 85. Question :

Kristine would like to start HRT to treat the significant vasomotor symptoms she is experiencing during menopause. Education for a woman considering hormone replacement would include:

Explaining that HRT is totally safe if used for a short term

Telling her to ignore media hype regarding HRT

Discussing the advantages and risks of HRT

Encouraging the patient to use phytoestrogens with the HRT

Question 86. Question :

Xi, a fifty-four-year-old female, has a history of migraine that does not respond well to OTC migraine medication. She is asking to try Maxalt (rizatriptan) because it works well for her friend. Which of the following actions would you take for appropriate decision making?

Prescribe Maxalt, but to monitor the use, only give her four tablets with no refills.

Prescribe Maxalt and arrange to have her observed in the clinic or urgent care with the first dose.

Explain that rizatriptan is not used for postmenopausal migraines and recommend Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital).

Prescribe sumatriptan (Imitrex) with the explanation that it is the most effective triptan.

Question 87. Question :

The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:

Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution

The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group

The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect

Age-related decrease in renal function Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians

Question 88. Question :

Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

Miconazole cream

Ketoconazole cream

Oral griseofulvin

Mupirocin cream

Question 89. Question :

GLP-1 agonists:

Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell.

Have been approved for monotherapy.

Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite.

Can be given orally once daily.

Question 90. Question :

Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term use of which of the following drugs?

Selective estrogen-receptor modulators

Aspirin

Glucocorticoids

Calcium supplements

Question 91. Question :

Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

Increasing calcitonin production

Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

Altering calcium metabolism

Stimulating bone formation

Question 92. Question :

Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.

Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.

Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.

Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

Question 93. Question :

Selective estrogen receptor modifiers (SERMs) treat osteoporosis by selectively:

Inhibiting magnesium resorption in the kidneys

Increasing calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

Acting on the bone to inhibit osteoblast activity

Selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone

Question 94. Question :

When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months

Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.

Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.

There is no laboratory monitoring required.

Question 95. Question :

Patients whose total dose of prednisone exceed 1 gram will most likely need a second prescription for _________.

metformin, a biguanide to prevent diabetes

omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor to prevent peptic ulcer disease

naproxen, an NSAID to treat joint pain

furosemide, a diuretic to treat fluid retention

Question 96. Question :

The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans

Annual vitamin D level

Annual renal function evaluation

Electrolytes every three months

Question 97. Question :

ORDER HERE

Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

Potentiate the effects of the drug.

Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.

Increase CNS depression.

Question 98. Question :

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions

Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl

Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions

Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

Question 99. Question :

Insulin preparations are divided into categories based on onset, duration, and intensity of action following subcutaneous inject. Which of the following insulin preparations has the shortest onset and duration of action?

Insulin lispro

Insulin glulisine

Insulin glargine

Insulin detemir

Question 100. Cynthia is taking valproate (Depakote) for seizures and would like to get pregnant. What advice would you give her?

Valproate is safe during all trimesters of pregnancy.

She can get pregnant while taking valproate, but she should take adequate folic acid.

Valproate is not safe at any time during pregnancy.

Valproate is a known teratogen but may be taken after the first trimester if necessary.

Primary method of continuous quality improvement (CQI) in health care, and what is its underlying premise

Due at 12PM CST, Monday, November 6, 2017

HCA 340 500

Discussion Board Assignment #10

Chapters12—Research:  How Health Care Advances and 13–Future of Health Care

Answer the following questions on Research: How Health Care Advances:

  1.            Definitions of the quality of medical care are no longer left to clinicians who decide for themselves what technical performance constitutes “good care.”  Name one (1) other dimension of quality care and why is it important? 
  2.            What is the primary method of continuous quality improvement (CQI) in health care, and what is its underlying premise?
  3.            Since an ever-increasing amount of research is funded by commercial companies, what is your opinion on a requirement for authors of scientific studies who receive income from these companies to disclose funding sources in their scientific publications?

    ORDER A FREE-PLAGIARISM PAPER HERE

Future of Health Care Questions:

  1.            Today’s not-for-profit hospitals and health systems are commonly multi-billion dollar tax-exempt organizations. What is your position on the new federal scrutiny upon, and reporting requirements for justifying the charitable missions of not-for-profit hospitals and health systems?
  2.            In 1999, the Institute of medicine report, To Err is Human,generated a brief flurry of concerns about avoidable hospital deaths.  While progress has been made in addressing system errors and deficiencies, it remains inconsistent across the nation’s hospitals.  Fourteen years after this report, is it time for the professions, payers and the public to demand corrections of system problems in an accountable, transparent and publicly disclosed manner?  What form can or should these demands take?

A descriptive and reflective discussion of how the new tool or intervention may be integrated into practice that is supported by sound research

Diabetes topic 1

Identify a research or evidence-based article that focuses comprehensively on a specific intervention or new diagnostic tool for the treatment of diabetes in adults or children.

In a paper of 750-1,000 words, summarize the main idea of the research findings for a specific patient population. Research must include clinical findings that are current, thorough, and relevant to diabetes and the nursing practice.

Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

ORDER A FREE-PLAGIARISM PAPER HERE

This assignment uses a grading rubric. Instructors will be using the rubric to grade the assignment; therefore, students should review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. Only Word documents can be submitted to Turnitin.

Part 2 powerpoint

Based on the summary of research findings identified from the Evidence-Based Project—Paper on Diabetes that describes a new diagnostic tool or intervention for the treatment of diabetes in adults or children, complete the following components of this assignment:

Develop a PowerPoint presentation (a title slide, 6-12 slides, and a reference slide; no larger than 2 MB) that includes the following:

A brief summary of the research conducted in the Evidence-Based Project – Paper on Diabetes.

A descriptive and reflective discussion of how the new tool or intervention may be integrated into practice that is supported by sound research.

While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Turnitin, unless otherwise directed by your instructor. If so directed, refer to the Student Success Center for directions. Only Word documents can be submitted to Turnitin.

Mr.Williams, a 62-year-old patient, presents for a physical examination. You suspect a vitamin D deficiency. Which of the following assessment findings might lead the examiner to suspect vitamin D deficiency

Mr.Williams, a 62-year-old patient, presents for a physical examination. You suspect a vitamin D deficiency. Which of the following assessment findings might lead the examiner to suspect vitamin D deficiency? 

Question

Question 1

Mr.Williams, a 62-year-old patient, presents for a physical examination. You suspect a vitamin D deficiency. Which of the following assessment findings might lead the examiner to suspect vitamin D deficiency? 

a. Spinal curvature and bowed legs

b. Night blindness and dry eyes

c. Neuropathy and seizures

d. Nausea and insomnia

Question 2

A college student comes to the student health center complaining of difficulty in concentrating during class and while studying. The diet that would contribute to this problem is one that contains mostly: 

a.fruit and vegetables.

b.lean meat and fish.

c.sandwiches and diet drinks.

d.pasta and chicken.

e.cereal and breads.

Question 3

In counseling a client regarding nutrition education, you explain that linoleic acid, a major fatty acid, is thought to be essential for: 

a. glycogen storage in the liver.
b. normal growth and development.
c. myocardial cell function.
d. building and maintaining tissues.

Question 4

Monitoring a patient’s waist-to-hip ratio provides data concerning: 

a. daily caloric requirements.
b. lung capacity.
c. stomach cancer risk.
d. cardiovascular disease risk.

Question 5

Mr.Jones is a 45-year-old patient who presents for a physical examination. On examination, you note costochondral beading, an enlarged skull, and bowed legs and diagnose him with rickets. A deficiency of which fat-soluble micronutrient can result in rickets? 

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K

Question 6

A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sports physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she: 

a. binges and vomits.
b. has regular menstrual periods.
c. has constipation frequently.
d. is cold intolerant.

Question 7

Mr.Miles is a 45-year-old man who is being evaluated for obesity. Advising Mr.Miles to reduce which macronutrient will produce the greatest calorie reduction per gram? 

a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. All provide the same number of calories per gram.

Question 8

Macronutrients are so named because they: 

a. have high molecular weights.
b. form long chemical chains.
c. tend to increase waist measurements.
d. are required in large amounts. 

Question 9

Bulging of an amber tympanic membrane without mobility is usually associated with: 

a. middle ear effusion.
b. healed tympanic membrane perforation.
c. impacted cerumen in the canal.
d. repeated and prolonged crying cycles.

Question 10

An infant’s auditory canal, compared with an adult’s, is: 

a. short, narrow, and straight.
b. short and curved upward.
c. long, narrow, and curved forward.
d. short and curved downward.

Question 11

An ear auricle with a low-set or unusual angle may indicate chromosomal aberration or: 

a. digestive disorders.
b. skeletal anomalies.
c. renal disorders.
d. heart defects.

Question 12

A 6-month-old who can hear well can be expected to: 

a. exhibit the Moro reflex.
b. stop breathing in response to sudden noise.
c. turn his or her head toward the source of sound.
d. imitate simple words.

Question 13

A hairy tongue with yellowish brown to black elongated papillae on the dorsum: 

a. is indicative of oral cancer.
b. is sometimes seen following antibiotic therapy.
c. usually indicates vitamin deficiency.
d. usually indicates anemia.

Question 14

A 5-year-old child presents with nasal congestion and a headache. To assess for sinus tenderness, you should palpate over the: 

a. sphenoid and frontal sinuses.
b. maxillary and frontal sinuses.
c. maxillary sinuses only.
d. sphenoid sinuses only.

Question 15

A smooth red tongue with a slick appearance may indicate: 

a. niacin or vitamin B12 deficiency.
b. oral cancer.
c. recent use of antibiotics.
d. fungal infection.

Question 16

A newborn whose serum bilirubin level is greater than 20 mg/100 mL has a risk of later: 

a. hearing loss.
b. sinusitis.
c. tooth decay.
d. meningitis.

Question 17

A clinical syndrome of failing memory and impairment of other intellectual functions, usually related to obvious structural diseases of the brain, describes: 

a. delirium.
b. dementia.
c. depression.
d. anxiety.

Question 18

Flight of ideas or loosening of associations is associated with: 

a. aphasia.
b. dysphonia.
c. multiple sclerosis.
d. psychiatric disorders.

Question 19

An older adult is administered the Set Test and scores a 14. The nurse interprets this score as indicative of: 

a. depression.
b. cognitive impairment.
c. delirium.
d. dementia.

Question 20

Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine: 

a. ability to understand analogies.
b. abstract reasoning.
c. attention span.
d. state of consciousness.

Question 21

Appropriateness of logic, sequence, cohesion, and relevance to topics are markers for the assessment of: 

a. mood and feelings.
b. attention span.
c. thought process and content.
d. abstract reasoning.

Question 22

A 69-year-old truck driver presents with a sudden loss of the ability to understand spoken language. This indicates a lesion in the: 

a. temporal lobe.
b. Broca area.
c. frontal cortex.
d. cerebellum.

Question 23

An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is characteristic of: 

a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
b. autism.
c. dementia.
d. mental retardation.

Question 24

Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in: 

a. aphasia.
b. impaired comprehension.
c. neologisms.
d. echolalia.

Question 25

Adolescents most likely to smoke, abuse substances, perform poorly in school, and be depressed are those who are: 

a. from dual-income families.
b. from families that emphasize strong reli-gious beliefs.
c. from deprived socioeconomic groups.
d. unsupervised after school.

Question 26

An aspect of traditional Western medicine that may be troublesome to many Hispanics, Native Americans, Asians, and Arabs is Western medicine’s attempts to: 

a. use a holistic approach that views a par-ticular medical problem as part of a bigger picture.
b. determine a specific cause for every prob-lem in a precise way.
c. establish harmony between a person and the entire cosmos.
d. restore balance in an individual’s life.

Question 27

An image of any group that rejects its potential for originality or individuality is known as a(n): 

a. acculturation.
b. norm.
c. stereotype.
d. ethnos.

Question 28

A 22-year-old female nurse is interviewing an 86-year-old male patient. The patient avoids eye contact and answers questions only by saying, “Yeah,” “No,”or “I guess so.” Which of the following is appropriate for the interviewer to say or ask? 

a.“Why are you so depressed?”

b.“It’s hard for me to gather useful information because your answers are so short.”

c.“Are you uncomfortable talking with me?”

d.“Does your religion make it hard for you to answer my questions?”

Question 29

An example of a cold food is: 

a. chocolate.

b. hard liquor.

c. oil.

d. onions.

e. a dairy product

Question 30

An example of a cold condition would be: 

a. a fever.
b. a rash.
c. tuberculosis.
d. an ulcer.

Question 31

As the health care provider, you are informing a patient that he or she has a terminal illness. This discussion is most likely to be discouraged in which cultural group? 

a. Navajo Native Americans
b. Dominant Americans
c. First-generation African descendants
d. First-generation European descendants

Question 32

A flat, nonpalpable lesion is described as a macule if the diameter is: 

a. larger than 1 cm.
b. smaller than 1 cm.
c. 3 cm exactly.
d. too irregular to measure.

Question 33

A 17-year-old student complains of a “rash for 3 days.” You note pale, erythematous oval plaques over the trunk. They have fine scales and are arranged in a fernlike pattern, with parallel alignment. What is the nurse’s next action? 

a. Teach infectious control measures.
b. Inquire about another recent skin lesion.
c. Inspect the palms and the soles.
d. Inform the patient that this will resolve within a week.

Question 34

A 5-year-old child presents with discrete vesicles on an erythematous base (dew drops on a rose petal appearance) that began near her scalp and are spreading to the trunk. The child has a low-grade fever and feels tired. What is the nurse’s next action? 

a. Teach infectious control measures.
b. Inquire about other patterns of physical abuse.
c. Inspect the buccal mucosa for Koplik spots.
d. Inform the parent that this will resolve within a couple of days.

Question 35

Age spots are also called: 

a. seborrheic keratoses.
b. solar lentigines.
c. cutaneous horns.
d. acrochordon.

Question 36

A single transverse line seen in the palm of a small child may imply: 

a. Down syndrome.
b. Turner syndrome.
c. systemic sclerosis.
d. profound dehydration.

Question 37

A 29-year-old white woman appears jaundiced. Liver disease as a cause has been excluded. What history questions should the nurse ask? 

a. Whether she had unprotected sex
b. Whether she has a history of diabetes mellitus
c. Whether she had unusual bleeding prob-lems
d. Whether she eats a lot of yellow and orange vegetables

Question 38

A slightly elevated brownish papule with indistinct borders is a typical characteristic of a(n) _____ nevus. 

Compound 

Question 39

A Dennie-Morgan fold is probably caused by: 

a. birth trauma.
b. high fever.
c. excess adipose tissue.
d. chronic rubbing.

Question 40

A cause for alarm during chest assessment of a newborn is: 

a. crackles.
b. rhonchi.
c. gurgles from the gastrointestinal tract.
d. stridor.

Question 41

A pregnant woman is expected to develop: 

a. tachypnea and decreased tidal volume.
b. deep breathing but not more frequent breathing.
c. dyspnea and increased functional residual capacity.
d. bradypnea and increased tidal volume.

Question 42

A musical squeaking noise heard on auscultation of the lungs is called: 

a. a friction rub.
b. rales.
c. rhonchi.
d. wheezing.

Question 43

A 44-year-old male patient who complains of a cough has presented to the emergency department. He admits to smoking one pack per day. During your inspection of his chest, the most appropriate lighting source to highlight chest movement is: 

a. bright tangential lighting.

b. daylight from a window.

c. flashlight in a dark room.

d. fluorescent ceiling lights

Question 44

A 29-year-old patient presents with a new complaint of productive cough, with purulent sputum. He also complains of right lower quadrant abdominal pain. You suspect pneumonia in which lobe? 

a. Right lower
b. Right upper
c. Left upper
d. Left lower

Question 45

Bone spicule pigmentation is a hallmark of: 

a. chorioretinal pigmentosa.
b. cytomegalovirus infection.
c. lipemia retinalis.
d. retinitis pigmentosa.

Question 46

A pterygium is more common in people heavily exposed to: 

a. high altitudes.
b. tuberculosis.
c. ultraviolet light.
d. cigarette smoke.

Question 47

A condition that typically develops by the age of 45 years is: 

a. presbyopia.
b. hyperopia.
c. myopia.
d. astigmatism.

Question 48

An increased level of lysozyme in the tears will occur normally during which life stage? 

a. Adolescence
b. Childhood
c. Infancy
d. Pregnancy

Question 49

Ask the patient to look directly at the light of the ophthalmoscope when you are ready to examine the: 

a. retina.
b. optic disc.
c. retinal vessels.
d. macula.

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Question 50

Changes seen in proliferative diabetic retinopathy are the result of: 

a. anoxic stimulation.
b. macular damage.
c. papilledema.
d. minute hemorrhages.

Question 51

A condition in which the eyelids do not completely meet to cover the globe is called: 

a. glaucoma.
b. lagophthalmos.
c. exophthalmos.
d. hordeolum.

Question 52

An abnormal growth of conjunctiva extending over the cornea from the limbus is known as: 

a. a cataract.
b. erythematous.
c. glaucoma.
d. a pterygium.

Question 53

A 36-year-old woman complains that she has had crushing chest pain for the past 2 days. She seems nervous as she speaks to you. An appropriate response is to: 

a. continue to collect information regarding the chief complaint in an unhurried man-ner.
b. finish the interview as rapidly as possible.
c. ask the patient to take a deep breath and calm down.
d. ask the patient if she wants to wait until another day to talk to you.

Question 54

Constitutional symptoms in the ROS refer to: 

a. height, weight, and body mass index.
b. fever, chills, fatigue, and malaise.
c. hearing loss, tinnitus, and diplopia.
d. rashes, skin turgor, and temperature.

Question 55

A tool used to screen adolescents for alcoholism is the: 

a. CAGE.
b. CRAFFT.
c. PACES.
d. HITS.

Question 56

A guideline for history taking is for caregivers to: 

a. ask direct questions before open-ended questions so that data move from simple to complex.
b. ask for a complete history at once so that data are not forgotten between meetings.
c. make notes sparingly so that the patient can be observed during the history taking.
d. write detailed information as stated by patients so that their priorities are reflect-ed.

Question 57

A pedigree diagram is drafted for the purpose of obtaining: 

a. sexual orientation and history.
b. growth and developmental status.
c. genetic and familial health problems.
d. ethnic and cultural backgrounds.

Question 58

A brief statement of the reason the patient is seeking health care is called the: 

a. medical history.
b. chief complaint.
c. assessment.
d. diagnosis.

Question 59

Behaviors that diffuse anxiety during the interview include: 

a. avoiding wearing uniforms or laboratory coats.
b. providing forthright answers to questions.
c. providing all necessary information before the patient has to ask for it.
d. completing the interview as quickly as possible.

Question 60

After you ask a patient about her family history, she says, “Tell me about your family now.” Which response is generally most appropriate? 

a. Ignore the patient’s comment and contin-ue with the interview.
b. Give a brief, undetailed answer.
c. Ask the patient why she needs to know.
d. Tell the patient that you do not discuss your family with patients.

Question 61

If only two blood pressure values are recorded, they are the _______________ sounds. blank(s) with correct word

first systolic and second diastolic

Question 62

A normal adult’s pulse pressure should range from _____ to _____ mm Hg.  Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

30; 40

Question 63

Body language that leads you to suspect that a person is in pain is: 

a. talkative, verbose speech.
b. fretful hand movements.
c. focused, fixed eye stares.
d. marked salivation.

Question 64

During respiration, the internal intercostals: 

a. increase the force of muscular contraction.
b. decrease the lateral diameter during expi-ration.
c. decrease the intrathoracic space.
d. increase elastic recoil during expiration.

Question 65

Hypertension in the adult is generally defined as pressure in excess of: 

a. 120 mm Hg plus the patient’s age.
b. 140 mm Hg.
c. 160 mm Hg.
d. 200 mm Hg.

Question 66

If a sufficiently large cuff is unavailable to fit an obese arm, which technique may be used to assess blood pressure? 

a. Wrap a standard cuff around the deltoid area and place the stethoscope over the radial artery.
b. Wrap a standard cuff around the forearm and place the stethoscope over the radial artery.
c. Wrap a standard cuff around the thigh and place the stethoscope on the dorsalis pedis.
d. Wrap a pediatric cuff around the ankle and place the stethoscope on the popliteal artery.

Question 67

In a syndrome in which regional pain extends beyond this specific peripheral nerve injury, you would notice which of the following: (Select all that apply.

a. Allodynia
b. Sleep disturbance
c. Blood flow changes
d. Numbness
e. Edema

Question 68

A blood pressure cuff bladder should be long enough to: 

a. cover 20% to 25% of the arm circumfe-rence.
b. cover 45% to 50% of the arm circumfe-rence.
c. cover 75% to 80% of the arm circumfe-rence.
d. completely encircle the arm.

Question 69

A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? 

a. Brush and needle
b. Tuning fork and cotton swab
c. Penlight and goniometer
d. Ruler and bell

Question 70

Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the: 

a. neck area.
b. heart.
c. lungs.
d. abdomen.

Question 71

A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell endpiece of a stethoscope to: 

a. prevent the transmission of static electric-ity.
b. prevent cold metal from touching the pa-tient.
c. prevent the sharp edge of the stethoscope from damaging the patient’s skin.
d. ensure secure contact with the body sur-face.

Question 72

During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: 

a. healthy lung tissue.
b. emphysemic lungs.
c. the liver.
d. most of the abdomen.

Question 73

According to the guidelines for Standard Precautions, the caregiver’s hands should be washed: 

a. only after touching body fluids with un-gloved hands and between patient con-tacts.
b. only after touching blood products with ungloved hands and after caring for infec-tious patients.
c. only after working with patients who are thought to be infectious.
d. after touching any body fluids or conta-minated items, regardless of whether gloves are worn.

Question 74

During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: 

a. asking patients to describe their symp-toms.
b. closing your eyes.
c. performing auscultation before percussion.
d. using an aneroid manometer.

Question 75

A patient in the emergency department has a concussion. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? 

a. Grid
b. Red-free filter
c. Slit lamp
d. Small aperture

Question 76

A scale used to assess patients’ weight should be calibrated: 

a. only by the manufacturer.
b. by a qualified technician at regularly scheduled intervals.
c. each time it is used.
d. when necessary, with the patient standing on the scale.

Question 77

At what age does peak height growth velocity occur in boys? 

a. 10 years
b. 12 years
c. years
d. years

Question 78

An 11-year-old boy is brought in for an annual physical examination by his mother.You suspect _______________ when you measure his arm span at 65 inches and his height at 60 inches. Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

Marfan syndrome

Question 79

A pregnant woman of normal prepregnancy weight should be expected to gain how much weight per week during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy? 

a. 1 pound
b. pounds
c. 2 pounds
d. pounds

Question 80

A prominent forehead, large nose, large jaw, and elongation of the facial bones and extremities are signs of: 

a. infantile hydrocephalus.
b. acromegaly.
c. Cushing syndrome.
d. achondroplasia.

Question 81

A marker for nutritional status is the: 

a. head circumference.
b. waist-to-hip ratio.
c. standing height.
d. triceps skinfold thickness.

Question 82

A woman with a normal prepregnancy body mass index (BMI) should gain approximately _____ pounds during pregnancy. Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

30

Question 83

After 50 years of age, stature: 

a. becomes fixed.
b. begins a barely perceptible secondary in-crease.
c. increases at a rate of 0.5 cm/ year.
d. declines.

Question 84

A Mexican American mother brings her 12-year-old daughter to the clinic because this child is not maturing as quickly as her classmates. You examine the daughter and determine that her growth and physical findings are within normal limits. You should explain to the family that: 

a. Mexican Americans may develop more slowly than other ethnic groups.
b. more tests should be conducted because the family appears so worried.
c. the daughter should drink more juices and eat more fruit.
d. there is a serious problem with the daugh-ter’s development.

Question 85

A 29-year-old woman presents to the urgent care center with a history of a severe headache of 2 hours’ duration. She describes it as bandlike and constricting.In interviewing the woman about her complaint, you would ask: 

a. whether she has experienced increased tearfulness.
b. the date of her last menstrual period.
c. whether these headaches started in child-hood.
d. whether she is particularly stressed or overworked.

Question 86

An inconsequential finding on the head of an adult is a palpable: 

a. embryonic remnant.
b. posterior fontanel.
c. sagittal suture ridge.
d. skull indentation.

Question 87

Closure of the anterior skull fontanel should occur by ______________.  Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

24 months of age

Question 88

During a head and neck assessment of a neonate, it is important to screen for: 

a. the presence of torticollis.
b. signs and symptoms of cerebral palsy.
c. uneven movement of the eyes.
d. unilateral movement of the tongue.

Question 89

A stethoscope is used in a head and neck examination to assess: 

a. intracranial fluid.
b. pulsating fontanels.
c. skull bone development.
d. thyroid vascular sounds.

Question 90

During a physical examination of a 30-year-old Chinese man, you notice a slight asymmetry of his face. The cranial nerve examination is normal. Your best action is to: 

a. ask the patient if this characteristic runs in his family.
b. perform monofilament testing on the face.
c. consult with the physician regarding the laboratory tests needed.
d. record the finding in the patient’s chart.

Question 91

A bruit, or blowing sound, over the skull or temporal region of an adult indicates a: 

a. degenerative change.
b. hyperthyroid storm.
c. skull fracture.
d. vascular anomaly.

Question 92

Coarse, dry, and brittle hair is associated with which metabolic disorder? 

a. Hypothyroidism
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Addison disease
d. Cushing syndrome

Question 93

A red streak that follows the course of the lymphatic collecting duct is a finding associated with: 

a. Hodgkin disease.
b. lymphangitis.
c. lymphedema.
d. lymphoma.

Question 94

As adults age, their ability to resist infection is reduced because of the lymphatic nodes becoming more: 

a. fibrotic.
b. mucoid.
c. porous.
d. profuse.

Question 95

Equipment for examining the lymphatic system includes a: 

a. caliper.
b. centimeter ruler.
c. goniometer.
d. syringe and needle.

Question 96

Cells that line the lymph node sinuses perform the specific function of: 

a. fat absorption.
b. fetal immunization.
c. hematopoiesis.
d. phagocytosis.

Question 97

An organ that is essential to the development of protective immune function in the infant but has little or no demonstrated function in the adult is the: 

a. spleen.
b. liver.
c. thymus.
d. pancreas.

Question 98

A congenital defect in the immune system of a 2-week-old infant may be suspected if: 

a. there are small femoral nodes palpable.
b. the umbilical cord has not yet dropped off.
c. the tonsils are visible.
d. the thymus is visible on a chest radio-graph.

Question 99

Hodgkin disease is most common in ______________________. Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

late adolescence and young adulthood

Question 100

Enlarged inguinal nodes are likely to be associated with: 

a. genital herpes.
b. pelvic inflammatory disease.
c. uterine cancer.
d. testicular cancer.

The Joint Commission resource found in topic materials, which provides some guidelines for creating spiritual assessment tools for evaluating the spiritual needs of patients

 Details:

This assignment requires you to interview one person and requires an analysis of your interview experience.

Part I: Interview

Select a patient, a family member, or a friend to interview. Be sure to focus on the interviewee’s experience as a patient, regardless of whom you choose to interview.

Review The Joint Commission resource found in topic materials, which provides some guidelines for creating spiritual assessment tools for evaluating the spiritual needs of patients. Using this resource and any other guidelines/examples that you can find, create your own tool for assessing the spiritual needs of patients.

Your spiritual needs assessment survey must include a minimum of five questions that can be answered during the interview. During the interview, document the interviewee’s responses.

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The transcript should include the questions asked and the answers provided. Be sure to record the responses during the interview by taking detailed notes. Omit specific names and other personal information through which the interviewee can be determined.

Part II: Analysis

Write a 500-750 word analysis of your interview experience. Be sure to exclude specific names and other personal information from the interview. Instead, provide demographics such as sex, age, ethnicity, and religion. Include the following in your response:

  1. What went well?
  2. Were there any barriers or challenges that inhibited your ability to complete the assessment tool? How would you address these in the future or change your assessment to better address these challenges?
  3. How can this tool assist you in providing appropriate interventions to meet the needs of your patient?
  4. Did you discover that illness and stress amplified the spiritual concern and needs of your interviewee? Explain your answer with examples.

Submit both the transcript of the interview and the analysis of your results. This should be submitted as one document. The interview transcript does not figure into the word count.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

This benchmark assignment assesses the following competencies:

CONHCP Program Competencies for the RN-BSN:

5.2: Assess for the spiritual needs and provide appropriate interventions for individuals, families, and groups.

Steps on Becoming a Grassroots Lobbyist/Advocate for Health Care Policy

First Steps on Becoming a Grassroots Lobbyist/Advocate for Health Care Policy  

This assignment has two parts, numbered below. Write each question as a new topic area, then follow with a paragraph or two to answer the question. You may find it necessary to search for answers to the questions outside of the assigned reading. Be sure to use APA guidelines for writing style, spelling and grammar, and citation of sources.  

Tasks: 

1.Imagine that you are going to make a visit to your representative in Congress. Develop a one-page document that supports your position on the AHCA that you would leave with your representative or his or her aide when you make your visit. This one-pager, also called a “leave behind,” should state your position clearly in bullet points and give your reasons why your position is preferred. This “leave behind” should have 1 inch margins and utilize 14-point font throughout. If you were making this visit in person, you would present your “leave behind” to the person with whom you speak during your visit. Include a second page that describes your rationale for the position in your “leave behind” page supported by at least two journal articles.

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2.Write a two-page brief to describe the scenario surrounding your legislative visit. Understanding the political affiliation of your representative, include answers to the following: 

•Was your member in support or in opposition to the AHCA? 

•State three points that you would cover in support or opposition to your representative’s position. 

•How does your nursing experience influence the advocacy position that you take on the AHCA?

perspective on the importance of “finding balance” between the roles of healthcare delivery providers

  •   Unit 1 Assignment 1 (U1A1)
       
    (Individual)
    “Finding Balance”
    Week 1
    100 points
     
    Introduce yourself to your classmates and to me.  Write using first person, such as—Hello class, my name is ME, and I want to tell you a little bit about myself and why I am interested in healthcare administration…
    Within the context of your intro, share your perspective on the importance of “finding balance” between the roles of healthcare delivery providers, such as nurses and assorted clinicians in a hospital environment next to the business/financial component that drives variables such as costs, length of stay, discharge protocols, admit/surgical denials, and any others.  Further consider that there is (or should be) a synergy among/between patient care providers and bean counters, yet it requires money to keep the beds open and salaries paid—just as it takes the care provided by trained professionals on the units.  How effective is writing “policy” on matters such as these?

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    This first assignment should be at least two pages in length, double spaced, 12 points font, and the title page is not part of the page count.  If you cite, be sure to include your sources within the essay, and at the end in a separate Reference List.  However, because this assignment is more of an opportunity to opine, sources are not mandatory.

     

    Evaluation Criteria
    You will be evaluated on your ability to complete the following tasks according to points designated:
     
    1. Introduce yourself…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….10 points 
    2. Identify and analyze a problem………………………………………………………………..…………………………   20 points 
    3. Outline and analyze proposed solutions……………………………………………………………………………………20 points 
    4. Explain the background of the issue including its history and previous attempts to address the problem…………….20 points 
    5. Name any inherent values that need to be assessed…………………………………………………… …………………..10 points 
    6. Determine the resources, both financial and human, needed to bring the issue forward and to reach a resolution…10 points 
    7. Describe a plan of action or policy based on your conclusions………………………………………………………….   10 points