Major types and classifications of health care information standards and the specific organizations that develop and regulate these standards

  Assignment 3: Presentation Of Assignment 2

In this assignment, you will condense information from Assignment 2 to create a PowerPoint presentation.

Create a seven to nine (7-9) slide PowerPoint Presentation in which you:

1. Provide a title slide (as indicated in the format requirements below), followed by a slide with an executive summary containing a brief statement of your proposal, as covered within Assignment 2.

2. Summarize your response to each of the criteria in Assignment 2—one (1) slide per criterion, for a total of six (6) slides. Major types and classifications of health care information standards and the specific organizations that develop and regulate these standards

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3. Provide a summary slide which addresses your key points from Assignment 2.

4. Narrate each slide, using a microphone, indicating what you would say if you were actually presenting in front of an audience.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

· Format the PowerPoint presentation with headings on each slide and three to four (3-4) relevant graphics (photographs, graphs, clip art, etc.), ensuring that the presentation is visually appealing and readable from 18 feet away. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

· Include a title slide containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The title slide is not included in the required slide length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

· Examine the impact technologies have on health care information systems.

· Describe the basic components of a strategic information system plan.

· Describe the major types and classifications of health care information standards and the specific organizations that develop and regulate these standards.

· Discuss the need for, and identify methods of, accomplishing the security of information systems.

· Evaluate the impact of strategic information system plans on organizational competiveness and performance.

· Use technology and information resources to research issues in health information systems.

· Write clearly and concisely about health information systems using proper writing mechanics. Major types and classifications of health care information standards and the specific organizations that develop and regulate these standards

Essentials Of Nursing Leadership & Management

1. Which of the following behaviors may be: (1) ethical but illegal, (2) legal but unethical, (3) illegal and unethical, and (4) legal and ethical.   

a) Working in a clinic that performs abortions.   

b) Respecting the wishes of a client suffering from ALS that he be permitted to die with dignity and not placed on “breathing machines”  

c) Respecting the health surrogate’s wishes regarding termination of life support of her friend.   

d) Observing a coworker take out two tablets of oxycodone as ordered for pain management for his patient but keeping one for himself, administering only one tablet to the patient.    Essentials Of Nursing Leadership & Management

2. Differentiate among the following: deontological theories, utilitarianism, and principlism.   

3. What do you think about health-care professionals disclosing information to clients about a poor prognosis, even though the information may cause severe distress.  

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4. What do they think about health-care professionals disclosing information to clients against family wishes?    

5. You see a colleague use another nurse’s password to access the medication administration system and take out a narcotic. What would you do?   

6. Your colleague’s child fell and was brought to the emergency department. She comes back up to the unit and tells you that they cleaned and debrided the wound, and she needs to change the dressings twice a day using a wet to dry method. You see her go into the supply system and remove the dressings and saline using a patient’s identification number. What would you do?  

7. You are caring for a patient who has a terminal disease. He asks you if he is dying. Would you tell him? If yes, how? If no, what might you say? .   

8. You are administering hydromorphone to a patient. The patient asks you what you are administering. Would you tell the patient about the medication?

Essentials of Nursing Leadership & Management 6th Edition  Sally A. Weiss  MSN, EdD, RN, CNE, ANEF   Ruth M. Tappen  EdD, RN, FAAN    ISBN-13: 978-0-8036-3663-7 Essentials Of Nursing Leadership & Management

Systemic cardiac output as a result of his ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Systemic cardiac output as a result of his ventricular septal defect (VSD)

***Read the case study below and answer the questions associated with the case study.

1) Crimes of the Heart: A Case Study on Cardiac Anatomy

Tiffany is worried about her newborn son. Ever since she brought Caleb home from the hospital it has been so hard to get him to eat and he seems to be breathing too hard all the time. She stopped breastfeeding and tried every bottle and formula on the market, but nothing has worked. So, at his one month check-up, her stomach is in knots as they place Caleb on the scale. The nurse says, “9 pounds, 7 ounces.” Tiffaney realizes Caleb has only gained one pound since he was born and she breaks into tears. Systemic cardiac output as a result of his ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Tiffaney is worried about her newborn son. Ever since she brought Caleb home from the hospital it has been so hard to get him to eat and he seems to be breathing too hard all the time. She stopped breastfeeding and tried every bottle and formula on the market, but nothing has worked. So, at his one month check-up, her stomach is in knots as they place Caleb on the scale. The nurse says, “9 pounds, 7 ounces.” Tiffaney realizes Caleb has only gained one pound since he was born and she breaks into tears.

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Dr. Baker checks over Caleb in the exam room, taking extra time feeling and listening to his chest. During the exam, Tiffaney explains her struggle with trying to get her son to eat and how he cries almost the entire day. After the exam, Dr. Baker says, “When I listen to Caleb’s heart I hear an extra sound called a murmur. I want to use an echocardiogram and an ECG to get a good picture of all the parts of his heart.”

After a full day of tests, Tiffaney meets with Dr. Baker in his office. He explains, “After a careful review of all the information, I have discovered that Caleb has a hole in the heart muscle wall between his right and left ventricles. We call it a ventricular septal defect. That is probably why he has been so irritable and hard to feed. The hole is not very big, but he will still need to have surgery to repair it.” Although the thought of her tiny son having surgery is terrifying, Tiffaney is relieved to know why things have been so tough at home. Systemic cardiac output as a result of his ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Short Answer Questions:

1. Dr. Baker spends a long time listening to (auscultating) Caleb’s heart. Where do you think would be the best place to auscultate Caleb’s abnormal heart sound? Explain your answer.

2. Caleb has abnormal heart sounds that tipped the doctor off to a problem. In relation to the normal heart sounds, when would you expect to hear the abnormal sound Dr. Baker heard? Explain your answer.

3. The defect in Caleb’s heart allows blood to mix between the two ventricular chambers. Due to this defect would you expect the blood to move from left-to-right ventricle or right-to-left ventricle during systole? Explain your answer.

4. What happens to Caleb’s systemic cardiac output as a result of his ventricular septal defect (VSD)? Explain your answer. 

5. Based on the location of Caleb’s defect, what part of the conduction system might be at risk for abnormalities? Explain your answer.

****Read instructions below and answer bulletin below****

2)I want to know where you find your nutrition information and how you distinguish quality from quackery. Please identify 3 websites with nutrition information, and provide us with:

    —A link to each site

    —A brief description of the site

    —Reasoning for why you trust or don’t trust the content of the site

Word Count is your choice for both assignments. Systemic cardiac output as a result of his ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Formatting is your choice also

Informatics role in a clinical setting


Conduct an interview with someone in an informatics role in a clinical setting. Then, compose a 4-5 pages paper discussing the following components:

  • Role description and education level required for the role.
  • Describe their views on how their role impacts patient safety and improves the quality of patient care.
  • Describe the Human Factors faced in the role and other challenges.
  • Express insights gained from the interview. Informatics role in a clinical setting
  • Research and discuss the impact of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) Patient Safety Indicators and The Joint Commission Patient Safety Goals in your clinical setting. Describe how these governing agencies impact delivery of direct patient care.

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  • Research, discuss, and identify the Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform (TIGER) utilized in your clinical setting. Be sure to get the perspective of your selected informatics professional during your interview.
  • On a separate page, cite all sources using APA format.
    • Use this APA Citation Helper as a convenient reference for properly citing resources.
    • This handout will provide you the details of formatting your essay using APA style.
    • You may create your essay in this APA-formatted template. Informatics role in a clinical setting

Medication to treat tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms

Medication to treat tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms

Week 5 

Discussion question worth 5 points

Discussion question due by Sunday, 11:59 pm. 

Following Case Study Question: As an NP student, needs to determine the medications for Tinea Pedis.

RX format: Medication, SIG: Instructions (Route, frequency, location, duration), Dispense #, Refills, ?

According to the ACC/AHA Guidelines, what antifungal medication should this patient be prescribed? Write her complete prescriptions using the prescription writing format and SOAP (subjective, objective, assesment, plan) format. 

Please include patient education regarding the selected medication therapy. Please choose a medication to treat tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms. You may order labs for baseline before starting the therapy and specify which labs.  Medication to treat tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms

Next to the chosen medication therapy, please choose references to support your treatment choice of medication or lab for baseline and follow up of therapy ordered. Specify when to refer the patient after therapy and why ?

WEEK 5: DISCUSSION QUESTION IN DISCUSSION BOARD

DERMATOLOGY CASE STUDY

ACC/AHA Guidelines

Chief complaint:  “ I have scaly crust in sole of feet and moist white crusts between my toes since I started using boots warm weather” for past 2 weeks. 

HPI: E.D a 45-year-old hispanic female presents to the clinic for complaint of itching in feet and scaly curst in sole of feet and moist white crusts between toes. She developed a red, itchy rash consistent with hypersensitivity reaction. She also indicates that she has noticed that her symptoms are worsening for past 2 weeks and it started after she started to use boots in warm weather. She has symptoms of red, itching rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction and tinea pedis. She wore about 2 weeks ago her mother’s shoes without socks and her mother has history of Tinea Pedis.

She has tried lotrimin AF cream for itching and it did not help relief her symptoms. She has not tried other remedies.

Denies associated symptoms of fever, chills, pain or any other symptoms. Medication to treat tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms

PMH:

Diabetes Mellitus, type 2. Peripheral Vascular disease. Varicose Veins.

Surgeries: None

Allergies: Penicillin

Vaccination History:

She receives an annual flu shot. Last flu shot was this year

Social history:

High school graduate, married and no children. He drinks one 4-ounce glass of red wine daily. He is a former smoker that stopped 3 years ago.

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Family history:

Both parents are alive. Father has history of DM type 2, Tinea Pedis.

mother alive and has history of atopic dermatitis, tinea corporis and tinea pedis.

ROS:

Constitutional: Negative for fever. Negative for chills.

Respiratory: No Shortness of breath. No Orthopnea

Cardiovascular: + 1 pitting leg edema. + Varicose veins.

Skin: + rash crusted white in feet and inter-digit in feet.

Psychiatric: No anxiety. No depression.

Physical examination:

Vital Signs

Height: 5 feet 5 inches Weight: 140 pounds BMI: 31 obesity, BP 130/70 T 98.0 po P 88 R 22, non-labored

HEENT: Normocephalic/Atraumatic, Bilateral cataracts; PERRL, EOMI; No teeth loss seen. Gums no redness.

NECK: Neck supple, no palpable masses, no lymphadenopathy, no thyroid enlargement.

LUNGS: No Crackles. Lungs clear bilaterally. Equal breath sounds. Symmetrical respiration. No respiratory distress.

HEART: Normal S1 with S2 during expiration. Pulses are 2+ in upper extremities. 1+ pitting edema ankle bilaterally.

ABDOMEN: No abdominal distention. Nontender. Bowel sounds + x 4 quadrants. No organomegaly. Normal contour; No palpable masses. Medication to treat tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms

GENITOURINARY: No CVA tenderness bilaterally. GU exam deferred.

MUSCULOSKELETAL: Slow gait but steady. No Kyphosis.

SKIN: +Dryness, No open lesions. +Dry crusts in sole of feet. + moist crust in between toes.

PSYCH: Normal affect. Cooperative.

Labs:: Hgb 13.2, Hct 38%, K+ 4.0, Na+137, Cholesterol 225, Triglycerides 187, HDL 37, LDL 190, TSH 3.7, glucose 98

A:

Primary Diagnosis: Tinea Pedis

Secondary Diagnoses:

Atopic Dermatitis

Xerosis

Pruritus

Differential Diagnosis:

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) (173.9)

P:

Medications:

Tylenol 650 mg PO Q4 hours as needed for arthritis pain

Labs: CBC with diff to evaluate for infection and baseline lab. CMP, PT/INR to evaluate status of liver and kidneys.

Referrals: may refer based on effect of medication therapy given for 2 weeks.

Follow up: return to office in 2 weeks to evaluate her symptoms.

Additional lab results:

Fungal culture confirm that she has fungal infection.

Question: As an NP student, needs to determine the medications for Tinea Pedis.

According to the ACC/AHA Guidelines, what antifungal medication should this patient be prescribed? Write her complete prescriptions using the prescription writing format. Write her complete prescriptions using the prescription writing format and SOAP (subjective, objective, assesment, plan) format. 

Next to the chosen medication therapy, please choose references to support your treatment choice of medication or lab for baseline and follow up of therapy ordered. Specify when to refer the patient after therapy and why ? Choose a medication to treat the patient’s condition of tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms. You may order labs for baseline before start of therapy and specify which labs. Medication to treat tinea pedis that would not exacerbate other patient’s symptoms

Assessing Critical Business Indicators In Healthcare

Assessing Critical Business Indicators In Healthcare

Assessing Critical Business Indicators   

In order to be a sound financial manager, you need to know the fiscal intricacies of your organization or department. Decisions about future expenditures should be based on careful calculations of organizational or departmental needs. By using critical business indicators, you can more effectively balance the fiscal realities of your budget with the functional demands of your department.  In this Discussion, you examine the use of critical business indicators to assist in financial decision making for a health care department or organization.  By Day 1 of this week, your Instructor should assign you a problem from the Zelman, McCue, and Glick online text. If you did not receive an assignment, contact your Instructor Assessing Critical Business Indicators In Healthcare

To prepare: •Review this week’s Learning Resources, focusing on how critical business indicators can be used in financial decision making. •For the problem you were assigned, complete the calculations and then answer the questions included. •Select a different business indicator than you used in your problem. Reflect on how this critical indicator could assist a nurse manager to more effectively balance the demands placed on a department while still meeting budgetary constraints. Find an example. •Assess the ramifications of making a decision without having the types of information these business indicators provide. •If it was imperative for you to make a certain purchase or launch a new initiative, but your break-even point was calculated as higher than the expected revenues, what are your options?  

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  Post your response to the question you were assigned and explain your reasoning. Suggest how nurse managers could use the critical business indicator you selected to both meet the needs of a department or organization and remain within budget. Provide a specific example. Describe potential ramifications of making a financial decision without using business indicators. Specify strategies for addressing a situation where a break-even point is higher than expected revenues.

Required Readings  Baker, J. J., Baker, R. W., & Dworkin, N. R.  (2018). Health care finance: Basic  tools for nonfinancial managers (5th ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones and  Bartlett Learning.     •Chapter 12, “Financial and Operating Ratios as Performance Measures” (pp. 127-134)    Review: This chapter introduces a number of different tools that can be used to measure the performance of an organization. These include liquidity ratios, solvency ratios, and profitability ratios.     •Chapter 15, “Using Comparative Data” (pp. 161-173)    Review: In this chapter, you are introduced to the criteria for identifying other health care organizations that are comparable to your own. Data from these organizations can then be used to evaluate your own organizational performance.  Zelman, W., McCue, M., & Glick, N. (2009). Financial management of health care organizations: An introduction to fundamental tools, concepts, and applications (3rd ed.). Hoboken, NJ: Jossey-Bass.  Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.  •Chapter 7, “The Investment Decision” (pp. 271–328) Assessing Critical Business Indicators In Healthcare

Management of the client with a herniated disc

Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

2 weeks

1 month

3 months

6 months

Question 2: CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components.

a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated

Question 3: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Management of the client with a herniated disc
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 4: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral 

Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 6: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 7: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?

a. 7 

b. 9 

c. 10
d. 15

Question 9: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?

a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP) Management of the client with a herniated disc

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Question 10: Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?

a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
d. Saline irrigation or soapy water

Question 11: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?

a. Autonomy

b. Beneficence

c. Justice
d. Veracity

Question 12: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland 

b. A hard irregular gland 

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 13: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 14: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? (Points: 2)

a. Metranidazole 

b. Ceftriaxone 

c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline

Question 15: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? (Points: 2)

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 16: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy 

b. Lumpectomy 

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 17: George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever

Question 18: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 19: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 20: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question 21: Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?

a. Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
b. Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
c. Identifying and managing complications of care
d. All of the above

Question 22: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 24: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints? Management of the client with a herniated disc

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 25: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

a. 4 

b. 8 

c. 10
d. 15

Question 26: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 27: The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin

Question 28: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 29: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

a. Pregnancy test 

b. Pelvic ultrasound 

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 30: The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

a. Low-dose aspirin 

b. Thiazide diuretics 

c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above

Question 31: A bulla is:

a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.

Question 32: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination.
As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 33: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?

a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 34: The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?

a. Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
b. Compete eradication of the virus
c. Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
d. Complete abstinence

Question 35: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 36: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 37: Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?

a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
c. Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
d. All of the above

Question 38: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 39: The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:

a. Good liability insurance
b. A collaborating physician
c. Good documentation
d. Open communication skills

Question 40: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding? 

a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 41: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above

Question 42: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

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a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 43: When may confidentiality be overridden?  

a. When personal information is available on the computer
b. When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
c. When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene test
d. When a patient has a communicable disease

Question 44: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease? Management of the client with a herniated disc

a. Sinus bradycardia 

b. Atrial fibrillation 

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 45: The most cost-effective screening test to determine HIV status is which of the following?

a. Western Blot
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
d. Viral load

Question 46: After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Normal TSH
c. Low TSH
d. Undetectable TSH

Question 47: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 48: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

Question 49 : In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?

a. Commitment 

b. Consensus 

c. Certification
d. Collaboration

Question 50: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

Special Topics in Child and Adolescent Psychiatry

Special Topics in Child and Adolescent Psychiatry

Many children face special issues that impact everyday life, whether it is within themselves, their families, or their environment. Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP)  must be sensitive to these many issues that children and adolescents are faced with during important developmental years.

In this Discussion, you select a special population and analyze the psychological issues that the population faces. You also address the assessment and treatment needs of the population.  

  To Prepare for the Discussion:

· Review the Learning Resources.

· Select one of the following topics for the Discussion:

o Adoption

o Foster care

o Gender dysphoria

o Forensic issues

o Impact of terrorism on children

                                                             Assignment 

· Write your selected disorder in the subject line of your Discussion post.

· Explain the psychological issues that may result from your topic. Special Topics in Child and Adolescent Psychiatry

· Describe the most effective assessment measure that could be used, and explain     

  why you selected this.

· Explain the treatment options available for children and adolescents involved  

  with your selected disorder.

· Explain how culture may influence treatment.

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                                                       Learning Resources

Required Readings

Sadock, B. J., Sadock, V. A., & Ruiz, P. (2014). Kaplan & Sadock’s synopsis of psychiatry: Behavioral sciences/clinical psychiatry (11th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

  • Chapter      31, “Child Psychiatry” (pp. 1279–1323)

American Psychiatric Association. (2013). Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

  • “Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders”
  • “Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical      Attention”
  • “Assessment Measures”
  • “Cultural Formulation”

American Academy of Child & Adolescent Psychiatry (AACAP). (2011). Practice parameter for child and adolescent forensic evaluations. Journal of the American Academy of Child & Adolescent Psychiatry, 50(12), 1299-1312. Retrieved from http://www.jaacap.com/article/S0890-8567(11)00883-5/pdf Special Topics in Child and Adolescent Psychiatry

American Academy of Child & Adolescent Psychiatry (AACAP). (2012c). Practice parameter on gay, lesbian, or bisexual sexual orientation, gender nonconformity, and gender discordance in children and adolescents. Journal of the American Academy of Child & Adolescent Psychiatry, 51(9), 957–974. Retrieved from http://www.jaacap.com/article/S0890-8567(12)00500-X/pdf

Lee, T., Fouras, G., & Brown, R. (2015). Practice parameter for the assessment and management of youth involved with the child welfare system. Journal of the American Academy of Child & Adolescent Psychiatry, 54(6), 502–517. Retrieved from http://www.jaacap.com/article/S0890-8567(15)00148-3/pdf

Human Rights Campaign. (n.d.). Growing up LGBT in America. Retrieved June 8, 2017, from http://assets.hrc.org//files/assets/resources/Growing-Up-LGBT-in-America_Report.pdf?_ga=1.83582870.1279387255.1493224749

Optional Resources

Thapar, A., Pine, D. S., Leckman, J. F., Scott, S., Snowling, M. J., & Taylor, E. A. (2015). Rutter’s child and adolescent psychiatry (6th ed.). Hoboken, NJ: Wiley Blackwell. 

  • Chapter 19, “Legal Issues in the Care and Treatment of      Children With Mental Health Disorders” (pp. 239–249)
  • Chapter      49, “Forensic Psychology” (pp. 636–647) Special Topics in Child and Adolescent Psychiatry

Findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism

NUR6550 Final Exam

1. The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?

2. Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?

Nephrotic syndrome

Decompensated congestive heart failure

Cirrhosis

Renal failure

Deep venous thrombosis

Late-stage pregnancy

All of the above

3. Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.

Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?

A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border

A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border

A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line

4. The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI. Findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism

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True

False

5. Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:

·          Na 126 mEq/L

·          K 4.0 mEq/L

·          Cl 93 mEq/L

·          CO2 28 mEq/L

·          BUN 40 mg/dL

·          Cr 1.3 mg/dL

Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?

Hyponatremia

Hypokalemia

Metabolic acidosis

6. Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia

Symbol Unclassified

All of the above

7. What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?

Myocardial infarction

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Supraventricular tachycardia

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)

8. Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.) Findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism

ACE inhibitors

Induction if stable

Emergent cesarean section if unstable

Digoxin

Nitroglycerin

9. What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?

Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation

Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi

Acute pulmonary edema

10. Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.

True

False

11. A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?

Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)

Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )

Almotriptan (Axert ® )

Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )

12. You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:

Drug-related reaction.

Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.

Early sign of dementia.

Normal age-related change in hearing

13. While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism? Findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism

Nitrites

30 mg/dL protein

Epithelial cells

pH>8

14. All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:

Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.

Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.

Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.

Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.

15. A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?

Usually obliterates S2.

Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.

Occurs late in systole.

Has localized area of auscultation

16. You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

Pressure ulcer

Pyoderma gangrenosum

Venous ulcer

Arterial ulcer

17. You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:

Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.

Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.

Checking her blood pressure.

Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.

18. A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:

Migraine with aura.

Cluster headache.

Transient ischemic attack.

Tension-type headache.

19. You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:

Early systole.

Late systole.

Early diastole.

Late diastole.

20. 32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:

Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel

Anti-HAV Negative HBsAg Negative Anti-HCV Positive

IgM Negative Anti-HBc Negative HCV RNA Negative

IgM NegativeAnti-HBs Positive

You recognize the patient is susceptible to:

Hepatitis A and B

Hepatitis B and C

Hepatitis B only

Hepatitis A only

21.  When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:

The likelihood of polypharmacy.

Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.

An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.

Presence of comorbid conditions.

22. When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.

A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.

A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.

A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.

A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.

23. The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:

Duty of care.

Non-malfeasance.

Autonomy.

Scope of practice.

24. When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection? Findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism

A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). 

A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months. 

A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.

A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.

25. The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Primary syphilis.

Secondary syphilis.

Genital herpes.

Gonorrhea.

26. A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:

Testicular torsion.

Syphilis.

Varicocele.

Testicular cancer.

27. An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):

Continuous pulse oximetry reading

Peak expiratory flow reading

Chest X-ray

Arterial Blood Gas

28. A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

T wave inversion.

Pathologic Q wave.

ST segment elevation.

Tall R wave.

29. A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?

Sotalol (Betapace ® )

Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )

Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )

Enalapri

30. A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?

Occurs late in systole.

Widely split S?.

Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.

Murmur follows mid-systolic click.

31. You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Impetigo.

Herpes zoster.

Drug-related adverse reaction.

Viral exanthem.

32. An NP’s duty of care can be established:

Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).

When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.

Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.

Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.

33. In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?

Warfarin (Coumadin®)

Clopidogrel (Plavix®)

Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)

Unfractionated heparin

34. An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:

2 sets of blood cultures.

Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

Urinalysis.

Lumbar puncture.

35. A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?

Neutrophilia with reactive forms.

Thrombocytosis.

Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.

Diminished ALT/AST levels.

36. “Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:

Office visits.

Hospital.

Nursing home.

Home visits.

37. A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?

≤ 6.5%

≤ 7.0%

≤ 8.0%

≤ 9.0%

38. You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:

Dementia.

Depression.

Delirium.

Drug interaction.

39. You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist

Angiotensin receptor blocker

Beta-adrenergic antagonist

40. A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:

Parkinson’s disease.

Delirium.

Dementia.

Early stage of congestive heart failure.

41. Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:

1

2

3

4

42. Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?

A randomized controlled trial.

Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.

Observational study.

Cohort study.

43. A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:

-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL

-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)

-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL

-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)

These findings are most consistent with:

Iron deficiency anemia.

Anemia of chronic disease.

Folate deficiency anemia.

Thalassemia trait.

44. You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications? Findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism

Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )

Citalopram (Celexa ® )

Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )

Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )

45. All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:

A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.

A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.

A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident. 

A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

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46. When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?

Sodium

Calcium

Potassium

Chloride

47. When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:

Testimony from a family member or close friend

A living will.

A “do not resuscitate” order.

A durable power of attorney for healthcare.

48. Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?

Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.

Non-randomized controlled study.

Observational study.

Case-control study.

49. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium

Pathologic Q wave

Tall R wave

T wave inversion

ST segment elevation

50. Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?

A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions. 

A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.

Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.

Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.

51. The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?

Oxygen therapy.

Beta-adrenergic blockade.

Tricyclic antidepressant.

Dietary reduction of amines.

52. All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:

The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.

The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.

Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.

53. A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:

Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

Medium-dose ICS

Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)

High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )

54. A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:

Serum uric acid.

Joint X-ray.

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.

55. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?

Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).

Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).

Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® ) Findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism

The obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension

Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest 2017

Question 1

A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:

a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred

Question 2

An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?

a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption. The obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension

Question 3

In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:

a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.

Question 4

Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?

a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery

Question 5

Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:

a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.

Question 6

A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Question 7

Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:

a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy. The obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension

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Question 8

A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:

a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions

Question 9

A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:

a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow

Question 10

Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?

a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic

Question 11

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?

a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids

Question 12

The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?

a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia

Question 13

The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:

a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis

Question 14

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.

a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal

Question 15

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:

a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

Question 16

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:

a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn

Question 17

A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:

a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose

Question 18

Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:

a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.

Question 19

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:

a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.

Question 20

A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:

a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility

Question 21

A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:

a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct

Question 22

A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:

a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus

Question 23

For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning? The obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension

a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric

Question 24

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:

a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.

Question 25

A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:

a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation

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Question 26

A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.

a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling

Question 27

Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:

a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.

Question 28

Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):

a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia

Question 29

The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:

a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding

Question 30

The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?

a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites

Question 31

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.

a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic

Question 32

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea

Question 33

A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:

a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia

Question 34

The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:

a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.

Question 35

Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D