Factors that are most important to your choice of health plans

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Factors that are most important to your choice of health plans

Part I

Consider the four health plans below with an eye to choosing one to offer to the company’s employees. Assume that the health plans and their annual per employee premiums are as follows:

Health Plan Premium, Individual Premium, Family

Aetna Health $4,555                           $11,428

MetroPlus $4,267                           $10,540

Empire        $4,217                           $10,767

Oxford        $6,029                           $13,417

The employer will pay 80% of the premium for individual coverage, and the employee will pay the remaining 20% as well as the entire additional premium for family coverage. (The premiums listed above, while realistic in magnitude, are hypothetical and computed solely for the purpose of this project.) All of the plans are managed care plans. Assume that the benefit package is the same across all plans, so there is no difference between them in what services are covered Factors that are most important to your choice of health plans

In addition to the above data, click here (https://www.health.ny.gov/health_care/managed_care/reports/quality_performance_improvement.htm#link3) to access the latest report for ‘Health Plan Comparison in New York State’. Review the online report and incorporate relevant information into your evaluation.

You can view the various categories of measures on which health plans are rated (e.g., Access to Care, Adult Living with Illness, etc.). Click each link for a summary chart that presents the performance (usually as a percentage score) of each plan in the group on the relevant measures and how each plan compares to regional and statewide scores.

Provide an analysis that outlines the plan you selected and why. Generally, you would select the plan with the highest score, but if you chose a plan with a lower score, explain why. Include the following elements in your analysis:

· Explain which factors (e.g., price and/or performance measures) were most important to your choice of plan and how you derived the weights for each factor you used.

· Indicate, on a scale of 1 to 10, how comfortable or confident you are that you made the right choice, with 10 being most confident.

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Part II

You need to use the multi-attribute utility (MAU) technique to respond to the following questions. Although the technique can be performed with pencil and paper, it is recommended you use a Microsoft Excel to do the various calculations involved.

Click the following links to access the information on using the MAU technique:

· MAU Model

· MAU Example

· Compare your level of confidence at the time you completed Part I to your confidence level for Part II, when you used this decision aid.

· Was it helpful? What were its advantages and disadvantages?

Did it make the decision harder to make or easier to justify?

Resource:

Hahn, W.J., Seaman, S.L., & Bikel, R. (2012). Making decisions with multiple attributes. Retrieved from http://gbr.pepperdine.edu/2012/08/making-decisions-with-multiple-attributes-a-case-in-sustainability-planning/ Factors that are most important to your choice of health plans

Why The Health Department Collects This Information Conveying The Idea Of How It Serves The Greater Good

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Assignment

You will need to discuss the fragile balance between the need for public health agencies to acquire data and the demand for security of sensitive information. Review the article Ethics in Public Health Research. 

As public health director in a small county, you must maintain records that track diabetes rates, the incidence of HIV, and immunization records. Recently, there have been at least two breaches when computers were stolen from employees or an outside hacker broke into the system and downloaded data.

Now you must write an open letter addressing the community and explain how the department is going to protect the information. In your letter, address the following questions. Why The Health Department Collects This Information Conveying The Idea Of How It Serves The Greater Good

1. Explain why the health department collects this information conveying the idea of how it serves the greater good.

2. Discuss the public’s interest in privacy and why this is important in our society.

3. Discuss why the department needs to infringe on the community’s privacy.

4. Explain how the department might ensure greater security.

5. Be sure to identify at least one applicable regulation, statute, or source that supports the ability of the department to collect this information.

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Assignment Expectations

1. Limit your response to 3 pages, not including title and reference pages.

2. Be sure to utilize at least 3-4 scholarly references to support your discussions.

3. Be sure to properly cite your references within the text of your assignment and listed at the end.

4. Be sure to apply critical thinking skills to the write-up of your assignment, especially for numbers 1, and 2 above.Why The Health Department Collects This Information Conveying The Idea Of How It Serves The Greater Good 

The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born

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The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born

1. Question: The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?

2. Question: What is the action of urodilatin?

3. Question: What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?

4. Question: Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

5. Question: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:

6. Question: Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?

7. Question: Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where? The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born

8. Question: Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an):

9. Question: It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding?

10. Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

11. Question: Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?

12. Question: The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur?

13. Question: Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?

14. Question: Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants?

15. Question: Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?

16. Question: Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response?

17. Question: Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old child?

18. Question: Where are antibodies produced?

19. Question: How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness?

20. Question: Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?

21. Question: Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

22. Question: What is the life span of platelets (in days)?

23. Question: What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

24. Question: What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?

25. Question: Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure?

26. Question: Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life?

27. Question:  Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?

28. Question:  Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms? The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born

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29. Question:  What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?

30. Question:  The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?

31. Question:  What is the functional unit of the kidney called?

32. Question:  Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?

33. Question: Which statement is true concerning the IgM?

34. Question: Apoptosis is a(an):

35. Question: What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?

36. Question: Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?

37. Question: Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?

38. Question: Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur?

39. Question: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?

40. Question: Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the:

41. Question: An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? 

42. Question: Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs?

43. Question: What is the first stage in the infectious process?

44. Question: What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?

45. Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

46. Question: What is the trigone?

47. Question: The coronary ostia are located in the:

48. Question: What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

49. Question: The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?

50. Question: Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born

51. Question: The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?

52. Question: In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a:

53. Question: What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?

54. Question: What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates?

55. Question: What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections?

56. Question: Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

57. Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

58. Question: What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men?

59. Question: Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?

60. Question: Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge?

Medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis

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Medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis


NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz

1.  Question: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

2.  Question: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

3.  Question: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4.  Question: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

5.  Question: What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

6.  Question: Which statement about vaccines is true?

7.  Question: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

8.  Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

9.  Question: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

10.  Question: What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

11.  Question: What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

12.  Question: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

13.  Question: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

14.  Question: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

15.  Question: What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

16.  Question: Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17.  Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

18.  Question: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses? Medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis

19.  Question: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20.  Question: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-) in cell metastasis?

21.  Question: In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

22.  Question: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23.  Question: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

24.  Question: Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25.  Question: Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

NR 507 Week No. 2 Quiz

1.  Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

2.  Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

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3.  Question: What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?

4.  Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

5.  Question: Which are indications of dehydration?

6.  Question: Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate

7.  Question: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

8.  Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

9.  Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

10.  Question: Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern

11.  Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

12.  Question: _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.

13.  Question: Dyspnea is not a result of

14.  Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

15.  Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

16.  Question: Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?

17.  Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

18.  Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

19.  Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

20.  Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

21.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?

22.  Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

23.  Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

24.  Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

25.  Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

NR 507 Week No. 3 Quiz

1.  Question: In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

2.  Question: Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?

3.  Question: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

4.  Question: Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia?

5.  Question: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

6.  Question: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

7.  Question: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

8.  Question: Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

9.  Question: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

10.  Question: What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

11.  Question: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

12.  Question: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

13.  Question: Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because

14.  Question: Erythroblastosis fetalis is defined as an

15.  Question: What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

16.  Question: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

17.  Question: In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

18.  Question: Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure?

19.  Question: What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?

20.  Question: Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?

21.  Question: Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

22.  Question: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise? Medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis

23.  Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

24.  Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

25.  Question: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

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NR 507 Week No. 5 Quiz

1. Question: Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

2.  Question: Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3.  Question: A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

4.  Question: What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

5.  Question: What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

6.  Question: A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?

7.  Question: Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

8.  Question: Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

9.  Question: The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

10.  Question: Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

11.  Question: When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.

12.  Question: Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13.  Question: The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

14.  Question: The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

15.  Question: Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults?

16.  Question: What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?

17.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

18.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

19.  Question: The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

20.  Question: The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

21.  Question: Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

22.  Question: The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is

23.  Question: Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

24.  Question: A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

25.  Question: Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia are each caused by a

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz

1.  Question: A(n) _____ fracture is a fracture at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality, usually by a force that would not normally cause a fracture.

2.  Question: Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

3.  Question: _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone?

5.  Question: What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

6.  Question: Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by

7.  Question: Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

8.  Question: Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9.  Question: An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

10.  Question: Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

11.  Question: Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

12.  Question: Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13.  Question: The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures.

14.  Question: The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15.  Question: Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?

16.  Question: Chickenpox may be followed years later by

17.  Question: Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n)

18.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus?

19.  Question: Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.

20.  Question: Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?

21.  Question: Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?

22.  Question: Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by

23.  Question: What is the cause of chickenpox?

24.  Question: Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?

25.  Question: What is a common source of tinea corporis?

NR 507 Week No. 7 Quiz

1.  Question: Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension?

2.  Question: What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?

3.  Question: Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing

4.  Question: Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?

5.  Question: Which disease process is infratentorial?

6.  Question: Most dysphasias are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery?

7.  Question: Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?

8.  Question: With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

9.  Question: What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury?

10.  Question: A man was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield. A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to the _____ region.

11.  Question: Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating?

12.  Question: Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia?

13.  Question: Which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

14.  Question: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used to treat depression

15.  Question: What are the most common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

16.  Question: Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

17.  Question: The neural groove closes dorsally during the _____ week of gestational life.

18.  Question: Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a(n)

19.  Question: Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by

20.  Question: _____ vomiting is caused by direct stimulation of the vomiting center by neurologic lesions involving the brainstem.

21.  Question: Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis?

22.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

23.  Question: Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

24.  Question: Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

25.  Question: An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool, the stools look like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? Medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis

How can you use the patient history to distinguish between bening headaches and serious ones that require urgent attention

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No Plegarism please, assignment will be checked with Turnitin. 

Will need minimum of 300 words, APA Style, double spaced, times new romans, font 12, and and 3 references with intext citations.

Case and Discussion: Headache

A 35-year-old woman comes to your office to discuss her “bad headaches,” which started after having her first child 2 years ago. The headaches sometimes awaken her from sleep and at times can be disabling and occasionally require her to take Tylenol and rest in a dark room. Sometimes she vomits during an attack. Over the past 6 months, her headaches have become more severe and frequent, prompting her visit today. How can you use the patient history to distinguish between bening headaches and serious ones that require urgent attention

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  • What additional questions would you ask to learn more about her headaches?
  • How do you classify headaches?
  • How can you determine if this is an old headache or a new headache/s? Is this a chronic or episodic condition?
  • Can you make a definite diagnosis through an open-ended history followed by focused questions?
  • How can you use the patient history to distinguish between benign headaches and serious ones that require urgent attention?
  • What diagnostic tests do you want to include to help you with your diagnosis?
  • Create a differential diagnosis flow sheet for this patient for this patient and include the diagnostics related to the differentials. How can you use the patient history to distinguish between bening headaches and serious ones that require urgent attention

Medicaid program that seeks to benefit the middle class

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Medicaid and the Middle Class

Description: 2 Parts/Save in 1 document

Part I: Medicaid is not just for low-income people. The American middle class benefits significantly from the Medicaid program. In a 5 page synopsis, analyze a specific Medicaid program that seeks to benefit the middle class in the state in which you reside. Please keep in mind the position and facility you selected. Make sure to include the following:

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  1. Discuss the purpose of the program. Medicaid program that seeks to benefit the middle class
  2. Describe whether the program is effective and offer evidence to support your rationale.
  3. Discuss other viewpoints or opposing viewpoints to the program.
  4. This portion of your assignment will require you to research and examine information from various sources. Use a minimum of five credible sources for your paper, with three being an academic source from the Rasmussen College Online Library (don’t forget to include in-text citations throughout your paper with paraphrasing or quoting)
  5. Make sure to include your APA formatted reference page.

Part II: It’s tough for healthcare professionals to keep up with all the programs offered through the government. Based on the position and facility you selected( Director of Admissions @ Rasmussen Region Hospital), create a one-page information sheet for our staff that they can use to answer questions.

  1. The information sheet should give your staff enough information to have an educated conversation with a patient about their healthcare coverage options through Medicaid.
  2. Make sure to use audience specific language and tone in your information sheet. Remember, you are writing this information sheet for your staff.
  3. Be creative and make your information sheet fun and organized. Medicaid program that seeks to benefit the middle class

Eldercare In Public Health Law

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Many laws, policies, and initiatives in public health are developed to try to create more equity in access to healthcare or to decrease the disparities that some people experience. It is difficult to determine when one population has received sufficient attention and another population should replace them at the forefront of advocacy and/or attention. Did you know that today we have more parents to care for than children? Eldercare has replaced childcare as a leading healthcare issue. Eldercare In Public Health Law

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For this assignment, do the following:

  1. Choose and view ONE 30-minute video in the And Thou Shalt Honor series from the list below.

    And Thou Shalt Honor: Beloved Strangers
    And Thou Shalt Honor: The Green House Project
    And Thou Shalt Honor: Caring for the Caregiver
    And Thou Shalt Honor: Spiritual Caregiving
    And Thou Shalt Honor: Separated by Time and Distance
    And Thou Shalt Honor: The Aging Game
    And Thou Shalt Honor: Voices from the Trenches
    And Thou Shalt Honor: In Sickness and In Health
    And Thou Shalt Honor: Getting Around – Alternatives for Seniors Who No Longer Drive
  2. Develop a policy related to the public health of the elderly in the United States.
  3. Compare the strategies used in the United States to address our increasing elderly population with that of another Country of your choosing. Critique some of the public health policies that have been developed in that country and how are they are working.

You assignment should be a 2-3 page assessment (not including the cover or reference page) that utilizes proper APA format and includes at least 3 scholarly resources. Eldercare In Public Health Law

The pathophysiological process of congestive heart failure

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Jesse is a 57-year-old male who presents with gradual onset of dyspnea on exertion and fatigue. He also complains of frequent dyspepsia with nausea and occasional epigastric pain. He states that at night he has trouble breathing especially while lying on his back. This is relieved by him sitting up. His vitals are 180/110, P = 88, T = 98.0 F, R = 20. After a thorough work-up, he is diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The pathophysiological process of congestive heart failure

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  1. What is the etiology of congestive heart failure?
  2. Describe in detail the pathophysiological process of congestive heart failure.
  3. Identify hallmark signs identified from the physical exam, diagnostic lab work and symptoms.
  4. Describe the pathophysiology of complications of congestive heart failure
  5. What teaching would you provide this patient to avoid heart failure symptoms?

In addition to the textbook (McCance, K. L., Huether, S. E., Brashers, V. L., & Rote, N. S. (2013). Pathophysiology: The biologic basis for disease in adults and children (7th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Mosby). utilize at least one peer-reviewed, evidence based resource to develop your post. The pathophysiological process of congestive heart failure

The culture and expectations of an organization impact on the structure of the selection process

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The culture and expectations of an organization impact on the structure of the selection process

The Selection Process

The process involved with selecting the “right” employee will differ depending on the requirements of the job. In addition, the culture and expectations of an organization will have great impact on the structure of the selection process. Where one health care setting might require applicants to participate in group interviews, another might use personality tests. In addition, the qualities for which interviewers look might also vary, ranging from a personality focus to a skills focus.

In this Assignment, you investigate the selection process that is used in a health care organization with which you are familiar. You also identify the expectations of both human resources and the nurse manager in terms of selection.

To prepare

  • Review Chapter 6, “Selecting New Employees” in the course text, Human Resource Management: Functions, Applications, Skill Development, to examine the various selection processes health care settings and other organizations may employ. In addition, reflect upon the three types of “fit” nurse managers should take into consideration when selecting new employees. The culture and expectations of an organization impact on the structure of the selection process
  • Identify a position that is open or has recently been filled in your organization.
  • Using what you know about the position, the culture and expectations of the organization, your own hiring and selection experiences, and this week’s readings, investigate the following:
    • Identify the selection steps that have been or will be taken, as well as the members involved. For example, which steps did human resources complete? In which steps did the nursing manager engage?
    • Identify the skills, educational and work background, and “fit” required for this position. How do these align with the advertised job description?
    • Identify any problems or areas that could be improved in your organization’s current selection process. If you were the nurse manager, how would you modify this process?

Note:If possible, you may also choose to discuss these ideas with an HR professional or nurse manager in your organization.

To complete

Submit a 3- to 5-page paper in which you do the following:

  • Briefly describe the selection process used in your setting.
    • Identify the team members involved in conducting each step. For example, explain which steps HR performs and which steps managers perform.
      • Explain how effective you believe the current system is.
      • Briefly describe any problems (e.g., rushing, stereotyping, “like me” syndrome, halo and horn effect, premature selection) your setting has experienced with this current selection system (if applicable).
      • Explain how you would modify the process and why. The culture and expectations of an organization impact on the structure of the selection process
  • Identify the job title for the open or recently filled position.
    • Describe the skills and background a desirable applicant would have.
    • Describe the type of “fit” that would make this applicant the “right” person for this specific job.
  • Compare the job description with the expectations of the position.
    • Explain whether or not the job description aligns with the skills, background, and “fit” needed to excel in this position.
    • Explain the specific attributes or characteristics you, as the nurse manager responsible for selecting a candidate for the position, might seek that are not specifically outlined in the job description. Describe how you could you elicit this information during an interview.

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Lussier, R. N., & Hendon, J. R. (2016). Human resource management: Functions, applications, & skill development (2nd ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

Chapter 4, “Matching Employees and Jobs: Job Analysis and Design” (pp. 120–160)This chapter discusses the importance of matching applicants with the “right” jobs. It highlights topics such as job analysis, job design, and job redesign.

Chapter 5, “Recruiting Job Candidates” (pp. 192–230)Chapter 5 provides an in-depth examination of recruitment best practices. It explores recruitment considerations and challenges along with internal and external factors that can impact recruitment efforts.

Chapter 6, “Selecting New Employees” (pp. 194–226)This chapter explains selection processes that are commonly used to find qualified employees. The authors share many techniques used by HR professionals and nurse managers to select the “right” employee for the job. The culture and expectations of an organization impact on the structure of the selection process

Markey, L., & Tingle, C. (2012). Screening RNs: A change in hiring practice. Nursing Management, 43(2), 13–15.  Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.

This article discusses the process of hiring to fill a nursing position, with a focus on Baton Rouge General Medical Center (BRGMC). At BRGMC, the interview process has one new addition: behavioral screenings for potential RNs. With this new aspect, interviewees are screened for behavior in clinical practice scenarios, equipment recognition, and skills demonstration.

The types of data and information collected in Telemedicine

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Please No Plagiarism

Action Items

· In a Word document, prepare a 2-3 page (500-750 words) written response to the following items to submit to your professor:

. Identify the types of data and information collected in Telemedicine.

ANS:

· Body Temperature

(Normal Range: 36.1–37.5 ◦C)

· Heart Rate

(Normal range at rest: 60–100 bpm)

· Blood Pressure

(Normal systolic pressure range: 100–140 mmHg)

· Respiration rate

(Normal range: 12–24 breathes per minute)

· Blood Oxygen Saturation

(Normal range: SaO2: 95–100%, PaO2: 90–95 mmHg) The types of data and information collected in Telemedicine

Bio-signal Transmission and Processing

· Medical Imaging ( Magnetic Resonance Imaging – Ultrasound )

· Medical Image Transmission and Analysis

· Image Compression

· Biopotential Electrode Sensing

. Select two of the types of data and explain how each is transmitted. (I need answer for this Question)

Submission Instructions

Complete and submit this assignment according to your professor’s instructions.

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Grading Criteria

Accuracy and completion of assignment: 0–15 points.  Refer to the Submission Grading Rubric below for specific criteria.

Criteria Level 3 Level 2 Level 1
Knowledge Demonstrates full understanding of all of the topics and accurately applies concepts learned in the course. More than one original conclusion made or idea suggested. 5 pts.  Demonstrates understanding of most of the topics and has applied concepts learned in the course. One original conclusion made or idea suggested. 4 pts. Demonstrates understanding of some of the concepts learned in the course and has applied them accurately for the most part. No original conclusions or ideas offered. 0 pts.
Organization, Focus, and Clarity Writing is logically organized and tightly focused. Main ideas are clearly stated and supported with details. Information is on-topic and flows from one logically-presented, clearly explained topic to the next. 3 pts.  Writing is organized and focused. Main ideas are stated and supported with details. Information is on-topic and flows logically from one topic to the next. 2.5 pts. Some or all parts are poorly organized or unfocused. Some parts might be off-topic. Main ideas are stated but not supported well with details. The sequence of information is hard to follow. 0 pts.
Mechanics No spelling or grammar mistakes. Formatting follows the current version of the APA Style Guide. 3 pts. Minimal spelling or grammar mistakes. Formatting follows the current version of the APA Style Guide. 2.5 pts. Noticeable spelling and grammar mistakes. Formatting does not follow the current version of the APA Style Guide. 0 pts. 
Sources and Citations Used recommended current, authoritative sources. Also located material from other current sources. Used APA style to create carefully formatted citations with no errors. 2 pts.  Used recommended current, authoritative sources. Accurately cited information using correct APA format with minimal mistakes. 1.5 pts. Not enough or unacceptable resources used. APA format not applied correctly or consistently. 0 pts.
Length Assignment is within the posted word limits. 2 pts.  The types of data and information collected in Telemedicine Assignment is longer than the posted word limits. 1.5 pts.  Assignment is shorter than the posted word limits. 0 pts.