Question 1 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options: 

a) Pancreatitis

b) Peptic ulcer disease

c) Diverticulitis

d) All of the above

Question 2 2 / 2 points

Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with mild BPH?

Question options:

a) Refer to a urologist for surgery.

b) Prescribe a trial of tamsulosin.

c) Recommend cranberry supplements.

d) Reevaluate symptoms in 1 to 3 months.

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

Question options:

a) Repeat the test.

b) Refer to a nephrologist.

c) Measure the serum protein.

d) Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?

Question options:

a) 0.05% liquid formulation

b) 0.1% cream

c) 1% foam

d) 0.02% cream

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?

Question options:

a) Pruritis

b) Glycosuria

c) Irritability

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis?

Question options:

a) Keratosis pilaris

b) Dennie’s sign

c) Keratoconus

d) Pityriasis alba

Question 7 2 / 2 points

The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Erectile dysfunction

b) Glaucoma

c) Hypotension

d) Headache

Question 8 2 / 2 points

When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect?

Question options:

a) A piece of hair or a thread

b) Hyphae

c) Leukocytes

d) Spores

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D?

Question options:

a) Vagistat vaginal cream

b) Monistat combination pack

c) Terazol vaginal cream

d) Diflucan, 150 mg

Question 10 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?

Question options:

a) NSAIDs

b) Beets

c) Vitamin A

d) Red meat

Question 11 2 / 2 points

Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?

Question options:

a) BUN and creatinine

b) Electrolytes

c) Creatinine clearance

d) Urinalysis

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?

Question options:

a) 35

b) 50

c) 70

d) 85

Question 13 0 / 2 points

When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes.What do you suspect they are?

Question options:

a) Spores

b) Leukocytes

c) Pseudohyphae

d) Epithelial cells

Question 14 2 / 2 points

Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24-year-old woman with a UTI?

Question options:

a) Last menstrual period

b) Method of birth control

c) Last unprotected sexual contact

d) All of the above

Question 15 2 / 2 points

What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Question options:

a) Radical orchidectomy

b) Lumpectomy

c) Radiation implants

d) All of the above

Question 16 2 / 2 points

Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?

Question options:

a) Urinalysis

b) Gram stain of urethral discharge

c) Complete blood cell count with differential

d) Ultrasound of the scrotum

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this?

Question options:

a) Bullous impetigo

b) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

c) Nonbullous impetigo

d) Ecthyma

Question 18 2 / 2 points

An example of ecchymosis is:

Question options:

a) A hematoma

b) A keloid

c) A bruise

d) A patch

Question 19 2 / 2 points

An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Prostate cancer

d) All of the above

Question 20 0 / 2 points

A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Testosterone level

b) Prostate-specific antigen

c) Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity

d) Prolactin level

Question 21 2 / 2 points

A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Peyronie’s disease

b) Damage to the pudendal artery

c) Scarring of the cavernosa

d) All of the above

Question 22 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?

Question options:

a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.

d) There is metastasis to distant organs.

Question 23 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Tinea unguium is also known as:

Question options:

a) Onychomycosis

b) Tinea versicolor

c) Tinea manuum

d) Tinea corporis

Question 25 2 / 2 points

The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF).Which of the following data obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia?

Question options:

a) Recent heat stroke

b) Nephrolithiasis

c) Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment

d) All of the above

Question 26 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using liquid nitrogen?

Question options:

a) Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding.

b) Pinch the skin taut together.

c) Use gel foam to control bleeding.

d) This should be performed by a dermatologist only.

Question 27 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Before prescribing Detrol XL, the provider should question the patient about which of these contraindications to this medication?

Question options:

a) Diarrhea

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Closed-angle glaucoma

d) Breast cancer

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

Question options:

a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 29 2 / 2 points

A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Risk of osteoporosis

b) May have hot flushes

c) May have impotence

d) All of the above

Question 30 2 / 2 points

Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?

Question options:

a) There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.

b) Josh has red papules on his face.

c) There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area.

d) There are white streaks on his neck.

Question 31 2 / 2 points

The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:

Question options:

a) A skin tag

b) Actinic keratosis

c) A melanoma

d) A basal cell lesion

Question 32 2 / 2 points

Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs?

Question options:

a) Telogen effluvium (TE)

b) Trichotillomania

c) Psoriasis

d) Alopecia areata

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain. He has no history of UTI. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made. Which is the appropriate treatment?

Question options:

a) Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day

b) Ice pack to the scrotal area

c) Saw palmetto 320 mg per day

d) All of the above

Question 34 2 / 2 points

A 30-year-old patient presents with pain on urination. The urine microscopy of unspun urine shows greater than 10 leukocytes/mL, and a dipstick is positive for nitrites. What is the probable diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Lower urinary tract infection

b) Chlamydia infection

c) Candidiasis

d) Pyelonephritis

Question 35 2 / 2 points

Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?

Question options:

a) Milk

b) Bananas

c) Soy sauce

d) All of the above

Question 36 2 / 2 points

An example of a primary skin lesion is a/an:

Question options:

a) Bulla

b) Scale

c) Excoriation

d) Fissure

Question 37 2 / 2 points

A 76-year-old man is seen in the office for complaints of urinary incontinence. The clinician should explore which of these causes of incontinence in men?

Question options:

a) Urethral polyps

b) Urinary tract infection (UTI)

c) Anticholinergic medication

d) All of the above

Question 38 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria. To make a differential diagnosis, which of the following questions should be asked?

Question options:

a) “Do you have a history of liver disease?”

b) “What medications are you currently taking?”

c) “Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?”

d) All of the above

Question 39 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means. Which is the best response?

Question options:

a) “There is no such thing as Stage D cancer.”

b) “You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue.”

c) “Your cancer has spread to other organs.”

d) “Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder.”

Question 40 2 / 2 points

Treatment for epididymitis includes which of the following?

Question options:

a) Warm sitz baths

b) Scrotal elevation

c) Masturbation

d) All of the above

Question 41 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain. The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for kidney stones?

Question options:

a) Hypertension

b) Constipation

c) Tubal ligation

d) Diabetes

Question 42 2 / 2 points

A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Psychogenic nocturia

b) Urethral polyp

c) Irritative posterior urethral lesion

d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy

Question 43 0 / 2 points

A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?

Question options:

a) Every month

b) Every 3 to 4 months

c) Every 6 to 12 months

d) Every year

Question 44 2 / 2 points

Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity.Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria?

Question options:

a) Staphylococcal aureus

b) Clostridium perfringens

c) S. pyrogenes

d) Streptococcus

Question 45 2 / 2 points

Ian, age 62, presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on his lower left leg that is warm and tender to palpation.There is some edema involved. You suspect:

Question options:

a) Necrotizing fasciitis

b) Kaposi’s sarcoma

c) Cellulitis

d) A diabetic ulcer

Question 46 2 / 2 points

Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?

Question options:

a) They have an increased number of melanocytes.

b) Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.

c) Their skin is thicker.

d) Their immune system is stronger.

Question 47 2 / 2 points

A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?

Question options:

a) Escherichia coli

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) Chlamydia trachomatis

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 48 2 / 2 points

When instructing your elderly client about treating her xerosis, what do you tell her?

Question options:

a) A daily hot bath may help the associated pruritus.

b) Rub the skin briskly to make sure it is completely dry after bathing.

c) Only take short tepid showers.

d) Use a gel that is alcohol-based after bathing to soften the skin.

Question 49 2 / 2 points

Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis?

Question options:

a) Take ibuprofen, 600 mg every 8 hours.

b) Take Tums? for stomach upset.

c) Drink more black tea.

d) Increase intake of vegetables, like spinach.

Question 50 2 / 2 points

The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?

Question options:

a) 3 to 7 days

b) 14 to 21 days

c) 3 to 6 weeks

d) 6 to 12 weeks

Submit Part One Portfolio 

3 .Using the American nurses association position statement, recommendations for improvement in end of life management focuses on practice, education, research and administration. Listed below are steps that nurses can take to overcome barriers in healthcare practice.

Practice

1. Strive to attain a standard of primary palliative care so that all health care providers have basic knowledge of palliative nursing to improve the care of patients and families.

2. All nurses will have basic skills in recognizing and managing symptoms, including pain, dyspnea, nausea, constipation, and others.

3. Nurses will be comfortable having discussions about death, and will collaborate with the care teams to ensure that patients and families have current and accurate information about the possibility or probability of a patient’s impending death.

4. Encourage patient and family participation in health care decision-making, including the use of advance directives in which both patient preferences and surrogates are identified.

Education

1. Those who practice in secondary or tertiary palliative care will have specialist education and certification.

2. Institutions and schools of nursing will integrate precepts of primary palliative care into curricula.

3. Basic and specialist End-of-Life Nursing Education Consortium (ELNEC) resources will be available.

4. Advocate for additional education in academic programs and work settings related to palliative care, including symptom management, supported decision-making, and end-of-life care, focusing on patients and families.

Research

1. Increase the integration of evidence-based care across the dimensions of end-of-life care.

2. Develop best practices for quality care across the dimensions of end-of-life care, including the physical, psychological, spiritual, and interpersonal.

3. Support the use of evidence-based and ethical care, and support decision-making for care at the end of life.

4. Develop best practices to measure the quality and effectiveness of the counseling and interdisciplinary care patients and families receive regarding end-of-life decision-making and treatments.

5. Support research that examines the relationship of patient and family satisfaction and their utilization of health care resources in end-of-life care choices.

Administration

1. Promote work environments in which the standards for excellent care extend through the patient’s death and into post-death care for families.

2. Encourage facilities and institutions to support the clinical competence and professional development that will help nurses provide excellent, dignified, and compassionate end-of-life care.

3. Work toward a standard of palliative care available to patients and families from the time of diagnosis of a serious illness or an injury.

4. Support the development and integration of palliative care services for all in- and outpatients and their families.

Discussion Board Question 2: End of Life Care.

Choose 1 focal point from each subcategory of practice, education, research and administration and describe how the APRN can provide effective care in end of life management.

Program Evaluation
In this Discussion, you and your colleagues identify a theory or model for evaluation and establish appropriate forms of evaluation for your programs.
As noted in Week 3 of this course, a particular theory or model is not necessarily appropriate for every program. It is important to consider the specifics of the problem and the target population when making that selection. This is important to keep in mind, also, as you examine theories and models related to program evaluation. In this instance, various facets of the program such as goals and objectives should be taken into consideration. Once selected, theory can provide a framework for evaluation.
In addition, there are distinct purposes for the elements of assessment addressed this week: performance measurement, monitoring, and summative evaluation. How do you foresee these being applied in your program?

To prepare:

• Review this week’s Learning      Resources. You may wish to review the Week 3 Learning Resources as well,      which may be pertinent.
• Consider the various facets of your      program plan, such as your program goal(s) and objectives.
• Choose the evaluation theory or model      (from nursing or related fields) most appropriate to your program. Be      prepared to justify the choice of your model as it relates to your      program.
• Based on the program you have      developed:
  • Create a time line for when to do       measuring, when to implement monitoring, and when to evaluate program       outcomes.
  • What types of data would you need to       collect in order to measure performance, monitor the progress of the       program, and assess the program outcomes?

By tomorrow Tuesday 1/22/19 6 pm, write a 550 words essay in APA format with a minimum of 3 references (see required reading list below). Include the level headers as numbered below:

Post a cohesive scholarly response that addresses the following:

1) Identify an evaluation theory or model that is most appropriate to support your program plan. Explain which field developed this theory or model and describe how it has been applied in fields other than nursing. Support your response with evidence from the literature (See attached file on week 3 discussion).

2) Share a time line that articulates how and when you would engage in various elements of evaluation for the program you have been developing. Be as specific as possible and provide your rationale for each decision point (no later than 2020).

Required Readings

Hodges, B. C., & Videto, D. M. (2011). Assessment and planning in health programs (2nd ed.). Sudbury, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.

· Chapter 6, “The Importance and Use of Theories in Health Education and Health Promotion”

The authors describe various theories, noting that theories are not universally applicable to every program.

· Chapter 10, “Program Evaluation: Background and Basics”

Chapter 10 outlines steps for designing evaluation during program planning.

Kettner, P. M., Moroney, R. M., & Martin, L. L. (2017). Designing and managing programs: An effectiveness-based approach (5th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage.

· Chapter 2, “The Contribution of Theory to Program Planning”

This chapter examines the application of theory in program planning.

· Review Chapter 10, “Performance Measurement, Monitoring, and Program Evaluation”

· Chapter 11, “Impact Program Evaluation and Hypothesis Testing”

· Review Chapter 10 and read Chapter 11 to examine aspects of evaluation essential to program planning.

Berhane, A., Biadgilign, S., Berhane, A., & Memiah, P. (2015). Male involvement in family planning program in Northern Ethiopia: An application of the Transtheoretical model. Patient Education and Counseling 98, 469–475

Kroelinger, C.D., Rankin, K. M., Chamgers, D.A., Diez Roux, A.V., Huges, K., & Grigorescu, V. (2014). Using the principles of complex systems thinking and implementation sceice to enhance maternal and child health program planning and delivery. Maternal Child Health Journal, 18, 1560–1564. doi 10.1007/s10995-014-1586-9

Silverman, B., Champney, J., Steber, S., & Zubritsky, C. (2015). Collaborating for consensus: Considerations for convening Coalition stakeholders to promote a gender-based approach to addressing the health needs of sex workers. Evaluation and Program Planning 51,17–26 doi.org/10.1016/j.evalprogplan.2014.12.002

Smith, T.L., Barlow, P.b., Peters, J.M., & Skolits, G.J. (2015). Demystifying reflective practice: Using the DATA model to enhance evaluators’ professional activities. Evaluation and Program Planning, 52, 142–147.

Albert, D., Fortin, R., Herrera, C., Riley, B., Hanning, R., Lessio, A., & Rush, B. (2013). Strengthening chronic disease prevention programming: The toward evidence-Informed practice (TEIP) program evidence tool. Preventing Chronic Disease, 10,1–9

Baron, K., Hodgson, A., & Walshe, C. (2015). Evaluation of an advance care planning education programme for nursing homes: A longitudinal study. Nurse Education Today, 35, 689–695.

Schmitt, C.L., Glasgow, L., Lavinghouze, S.R., Ricker, P.P., Fulmer, E., McAleer, K., & Rogers, T. (2016). Measuring infrastructure: A key step in program evaluation and planning. Evaluation and Program Planning, 56, 50–56 doi.org/10.1016/j.evalprogplan.2016.03.007

Required Media

Laureate Education (Producer). (2011). Design and evaluation of programs and projects [Video file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.

“Performance Measurement, Monitoring, and Evaluation” (featuring Dr. Donna Shambley-Ebron, Dr. Melissa Willmarth, and Dr. Debora Dole)

You may view this course video by clicking the link or on the course DVD, which contains the same content. Once you’ve opened the link, click on the appropriate media piece.

In this week’s videos, Dr. Donna Shambley-Ebron, Dr. Melissa Willmarth, Dr. Debora Dole discuss evaluation for programs.

Optional Resources

Ahmad, F., Roy, A., Brady, S., Belgeonne, S., Dunn, L., & Pitts, J. (2007). Care pathway initiative for people with intellectual disabilities: Impact evaluation. Journal of Nursing Management, 15(7), 700–702.

This article is an example of an impact evaluation.

Gard, C. L., Flannigan, P. N., & Cluskey, M. (2004). Program evaluation: An ongoing systematic process. Nursing Education Perspectives, 25(4), 176–179.

This article discusses the use of accreditation standards and site visits as a plan for ongoing evaluation for a nursing program.

Graff, J. C., Russell, C. K., & Stegbauer, C. C. (2007). Formative and summative evaluation of a practice doctorate program. Nurse Educator, 32(4), 173–177.

Milne, L., Scotland, G., Tagiyeva-Milne, N., & Hussein, J. (2004). Safe motherhood program evaluation: Theory and practice. Journal of Midwifery & Women’s Health, 49(4), 338–344.

This article identifies and evaluates the different approaches to program evaluation related to safe motherhood.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. (2007). Chronic disease indicators [Data set]. Retrieved from https://www.cdc.gov/cdi/.

This site allows you to search and compare different regions for specific chronic disease indicators.

Hulton, L. J. (2007). An evaluation of a school-based teenage pregnancy prevention program using a logic model framework. Journal of School Nursing, 23(2), 104–110.

This article describes the use of the logic model to develop, implement, and evaluate a nursing intervention in a school setting.

Johnson, S. S., Driskell, M., Johnson, J. L., Prochaska, J. M., Zwick, W., & Prochaska, J. O. (2006). Efficacy of a transtheoretical model-based expert system for antihypertensive adherence. Disease Management, 9(5), 291–301.

This article introduces the use of the transtheoretical model and stages of change as applied to interventions aimed at medication adherence for patients with hypertension.

Rogers, L. Q., Shah, P., Dunnington, G., Greive, A., Shanmugham, A., Dawson, B., & Courneya, K. S. (2005). Social cognitive theory and physical activity during breast cancer treatment. Oncology Nursing Forum, 32(4), 807–815.

The social cognitive theory is utilized to examine associations with physical activity in breast cancer patients. This article posits that the social cognitive theory can be used as a mediator for intervention evaluation with this population.

W. K. Kellogg Foundation. (2004). Using logic models to bring together planning, evaluation, and action: Logic model development guide. Battle Creek, MI: W. K. Kellogg Foundation. Retrieved from http://www.wkkf.org/resource-directory/resource/2006/02/wk-kellogg-foundation-logic-model-development-guide.

This report offers a guide for the use of the logic model in program planning and outcome-oriented evaluation for nonprofit projects.

Action at an Emergency 

1. Emergencies have distinctive characteristics. List each characteristic and explain. ( Please highlight , color code your answers, or use a different Front)

1.  

2.  

3.  

4.  

5.  

2. The bystander is a vital link between____________________________________________________

__________________________________ and the _____________________.

3. List and Discuss 5 actions or decisions a bystander should   quickly and reliably make when deciding to intervene in an emergency. 

 1.  

2. 

3.

  4.

 5. 

4.  List and discuss 3 why some bystanders are less likely to offer help.

·  

·  

·  

5. List 5 questions you should consider before calling 911. 

1.  

2.  

3.  

4.  

5.  

6. List 18 conditions that are warning signs of more serious conditions that 

ACEP recommends immediate transport to the hospital emergency department , by EMS or by private vehicle.

1.  

2.  

3.  

4.  

5.  

6.  

7.  

8.  

9.  

10.  

11.  

12.  

13.  

14.  

15.  

16.  

17.  

18.  

7. You should always call ______________ first when serious situations occur. 

8. When you call 911, speak ________________and _________________. 

9. List and discuss information that you should give to the dispatcher.

1.  

2.  

3.  

4.  

5.  

10. What is Posttraumatic stress disorder?

11. Discuss scene size – up. What are 3 things you should look for?

12. What should first aiders do to reduce the risk of contamination to themselves and others? 

13. Discuss the following: 

1. Infectious disease

2. Communicable disease

3. Standard precautions

14. Discuss the proper procedure for washing your hands 

1.

2

3

4

15. What does Figure 2-5 illustrate? 

16. If your eyes, nose and mouth are splashed by bloody fluid, you should ____________________________________________________________________.

17. Discuss personal protective equipment (PPE).

18. Discuss the different types of gloves. 

19. Discuss the proper method removing gloves.

1.  

2.  

3.  

4.  

Notice: You should consider putting on a ____________________________if there is major, significant ________________________ or _____________________. Replace the gloves if ­_____________________­________________________________.

20. Discuss Mouth -to –barrier devices.

21.  What type of device is used in figure 2-6? 

22. When cleaning up blood or other body fluids, you should protect yourself and others against disease transmission by :

1.  

2.  

3.  

4.  

23. What should you do if you have been exposed to blood or body fluids?

1.  

2.  

24. List and discuss Bloodborne diseases.

25. List and discuss Airborne diseases. 

26. List 7 ways you can assist a dying victim.

27. Discuss the five stages of grieving?

28. Discuss 6 ways of dealing with survivors.