Translational Research Graphic Organizer

Use the “Translational Research Graphic Organizer Template” to compare three types of translational research with traditional (qualitative or quantitative) research. Make sure to include methodology, goals, and data collection in your organizer.

You are required to cite three to five sources to complete this assignment. Sources must be published within the last 5 years and appropriate for the assignment criteria and nursing content. Translational Research Graphic Organizer

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Translational Research Graphic Organizer Template

  <Type Translational Research Type Here> <Type Traditional (Qualitative or Quantitative) Research Type Here> Observations (Similarities/Differences)
Methodology      
Goals      
Data Collection      

Health Promotion

Please use the patient information provided below for this paper.

This assignment assesses intended course outcome(s)

#4 Use information found in patients’ health histories, genograms, and assessments to formulate an individualized plan of nursing care that focuses on the patient’s individual health promotion and disease prevention needs 

Students will use the information found in Tina’s history, physical exam, and problem list to formulate an individualized health promotion and disease prevention plan of care. Recommendations should be evidence-based and from credible sources. The readings in module eight contains some suggested sources for obtaining health and screening recommendations for your patient.  Health Promotion

The plan for addressing the health promotion and disease prevention needs for your patient should include:

Demographics:

–          Age, gender and race of patient

–          Education level (health literacy)

–           Access to health care

Insurance/Financial status

–          Is the patient able to afford medications and health diet, and other out-of-pocket expenses?

Screening/Risk Assessment

–          Identified health concerns based on screening assessments and demographic information

Nutrition/Activity

–          What is the patients activity level, is the environment where the patient lives safe for activity

–          Nutrition recommendations based on age, race gender and pre-existing medical conditions

–          Activity recommendations

Social Support

–          Support systems, family members, community resources

Health Maintenance

–          Recommended health screening based on age, race, gender and pre-existing medical conditions

Patient Education:

–          Identified knowledge deficit areas/patient education needs (medication teaching etc). Health Promotion Health Promotion

–          Self-care needs/ Activities of daily living

* The paper should be written and referenced in APA format and be no longer than 4 pages (excluding cover page and references).

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Your paper will be evaluated based on the following criteria:

Criteria Level 3 Level 2 Level 1
Demographics(5%) Includes age, race and gender of patient Missing one data item Missing 2 or more data items
Insurance/Financial status(10%) Includes information regarding patient’s insurance status and ability to afford medications and other  out-of-pocket expenses Missing some information regarding insurance status and ability to pay for medications and other out-of-pocket expenses. Missing information regarding the patients insurance status, ability to pay of medications and other out-of-pocket expenses
Screening /risk assessment(10%) Identifies health concerns based on screening assessments and demographic information. Missing some information regarding health concerns, by excluding information from screening assessments and demographics Health concerns are not identified due to information missing from screening assessments and demographics
Nutrition/activity(20%) Completely asses patient’s nutrition and activity levels and makes recommendations based on age, race, gender and pre-existing medical conditions Missing some information regarding the patients nutrition and activity levels, make recommendations based on age, race, gender and pre-existing medical conditions Most of the information regarding the patient’s nutrition and activity levels are missing, recommendations are missing or not based on the patient’s age, race, gender and pre-existing medical conditions
Social support(10%) Identifies support systems such as family members and community resources Missing some information regarding support systems such as family members and/or community resources Little to no information regarding social support
Health Maintenance(20%) Overall health maintenance recommendations made based on age, race, gender and pre-existing medical conditions Missing some recommendations, mostly based on age, race, gender and pre-existing medical conditions Missing many recommendations, loosely related to age, race, gender and pre-existing medical conditions
Patient Education(20%) Identified knowledge deficit areas/patient education needs including self-care needs and activities of daily living Missing one or more areas of knowledge deficit/patient education needs including self-care and activities of daily living Lacks identification of knowledge deficit areas/patient education needs. Does not consider self-care needs or activities of daily living.
Organization, spelling and grammar, APA(5%) Organized, easy to read, no spelling or grammar mistakes, appropriate use of APA Organized and easy to read, few spelling or grammar mistakes, few errors in APA Disorganized, difficult to read, many spelling and grammar errors mistakes. Does not use APA
Overall score Points(60-100) Points(24-59) Points( 0-23)

Health History

Student Documentation Model Documentation
Identifying Data & ReliabilityTina Jones is a 28 year old African american female AOX4. Pt is reliable historian Ms. Jones is a pleasant, 28-year-old African American single woman who presents for a pre-employment physical. She is the primary source of the history. Ms. Jones offers information freely and without contradiction. Speech is clear and coherent. She maintains eye contact throughout the interview. Health Promotion
General SurveyAlert and oriented X4. Feels tired because she was just coming from her other job. Ms. Jones is alert and oriented, seated upright on the examination table, and is in no apparent distress. She is well-nourished, well-developed, and dressed appropriately with good hygiene.
Reason for VisitPresenting to shadow health hospital clinic for a complete health assessment for a pre-employment physical. “I came in because I’m required to have a recent physical exam for the health insurance at my new job.”
History of Present IllnessTina Jones is a 28year old African America female with a history of diabetes and Asthma presenting to get a complete health assessment for a pre-employment physical. Ms. Jones reports that she recently obtained employment at Smith, Stevens, Stewart, Silver & Company. She needs to obtain a pre-employment physical prior to initiating employment. Today she denies any acute concerns. Her last healthcare visit was 4 months ago, when she received her annual gynecological exam at Shadow Health General Clinic. Ms. Jones states that the gynecologist diagnosed her with polycystic ovarian syndrome and prescribed oral contraceptives at that visit, which she is tolerating well. She has type 2 diabetes, which she is controlling with diet, exercise, and metformin, which she just started 5 months ago. She has no medication side effects at this time. She states that she feels healthy, is taking better care of herself than in the past, and is looking forward to beginning the new job.
MedicationsMetformin 850mg twice daily Yaz birth control daily in the morning Flovent MDI twice daily proventil 90mcg/spray 2 puffs as needed for wheezing • Fluticasone propionate, 110 mcg 2 puffs BID (last use: this morning) • Metformin, 850 mg PO BID (last use: this morning) • Drospirenone and ethinyl estradiol PO QD (last use: this morning) • Albuterol 90 mcg/spray MDI 2 puffs Q4H prn (last use: three months ago) • Acetaminophen 500-1000 mg PO prn (headaches) • Ibuprofen 600 mg PO TID prn (menstrual cramps: last taken 6 weeks ago)
AllergiesPenicillin- Rash, hives cats- sneezing, itchy watery eyes, asthma exacebation No Known food allergies No latex allergies • Penicillin: rash • Denies food and latex allergies • Allergic to cats and dust. When she is exposed to allergens she states that she has runny nose, itchy and swollen eyes, and increased asthma symptoms.
Medical HistoryAsthma- diagnosed at age 2 1/2 Diabetes Type 2 – diagnosed at 24 was on metformin but stopped due to side effects Asthma diagnosed at age 2 1/2. She uses her albuterol inhaler when she is around cats. Her last asthma exacerbation was three months ago, which she resolved with her inhaler. She was last hospitalized for asthma in high school. Never intubated. Type 2 diabetes, diagnosed at age 24. She began metformin 5 months ago and initially had some gastrointestinal side effects which have since dissipated. She monitors her blood sugar once daily in the morning with average readings being around 90. She has a history of hypertension which normalized when she initiated diet and exercise. No surgeries. OB/GYN: Menarche, age 11. First sexual encounter at age 18, sex with men, identifies as heterosexual. Never pregnant. Last menstrual period 2 weeks ago. Diagnosed with PCOS four months ago. For the past four months (after initiating Yaz) cycles regular (every 4 weeks) with moderate bleeding lasting 5 days. Has new male relationship, sexual contact not initiated. She plans to use condoms with sexual activity. Tested negative for HIV/AIDS and STIs four months ago.
Health MaintenanceHas been eating healthy and trying to stay active by walking 30-40 mins two times per week and also swimming once a week Last Pap smear 4 months ago. Last eye exam three months ago. Last dental exam five months ago. PPD (negative) ~2 years ago. Immunizations: Tetanus booster was received within the past year, influenza is not current, and human papillomavirus has not been received. She reports that she believes she is up to date on childhood vaccines and received the meningococcal vaccine for college. Safety: Has smoke detectors in the home, wears seatbelt in car, and does not ride a bike. Uses sunscreen. Guns, having belonged to her dad, are in the home, locked in parent’s room.
Family History-Father died 2 1/2 ears ago in a car accident. History of high blood pressure,type 2 diabetes and high cholesterol -Mother is still alive. has history of hypertension and high cholesterol. -Brother is overweight -Sister has asthma • Mother: age 50, hypertension, elevated cholesterol • Father: deceased in car accident one year ago at age 58, hypertension, high cholesterol, and type 2 diabetes • Brother (Michael, 25): overweight • Sister (Britney, 14): asthma • Maternal grandmother: died at age 73 of a stroke, history of hypertension, high cholesterol • Maternal grandfather: died at age 78 of a stroke, history of hypertension, high cholesterol • Paternal grandmother: still living, age 82, hypertension • Paternal grandfather: died at age 65 of colon cancer, history of type 2 diabetes • Paternal uncle: alcoholism • Negative for mental illness, other cancers, sudden death, kidney disease, sickle cell anemia, thyroid problems
Social Historyshe does not have any children, has never been pregnant and has never been married. she lives with her mother and sister. currently works but is hoping to start a new jop as an accounting clerk at smith, stevens, steward silver company. drinksa alcohol ocassionally when she goes out with friends Never married, no children. Lived independently since age 19, currently lives with mother and sister in a single family home, but will move into own apartment in one month. Will begin her new position in two weeks at Smith, Stevens, Stewart, Silver, & Company. She enjoys spending time with friends, reading, attending Bible study, volunteering in her church, and dancing. Tina is active in her church and describes a strong family and social support system. She states that family and church help her cope with stress. No tobacco. Cannabis use from age 15 to age 21. Reports no use of cocaine, methamphetamines, and heroin. Uses alcohol when “out with friends, 2-3 times per month,” reports drinking no more than 3 drinks per episode. Typical breakfast is frozen fruit smoothie with unsweetened yogurt, lunch is vegetables with brown rice or sandwich on wheat bread or low-fat pita, dinner is roasted vegetables and a protein, snack is carrot sticks or an apple. Denies coffee intake, but does consume 1-2 diet sodas per day. No recent foreign travel. No pets. Participates in mild to moderate exercise four to five times per week consisting of walking, yoga, or swimming.
Mental Health HistoryDenies any history of depression or suicidal thoughts. denies any problems with mood. no overall safety concerns. Reports decreased stress and improved coping abilities have improved previous sleep difficulties. Denies current feelings of depression, anxiety, or thoughts of suicide. Alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Well-groomed, easily engages in conversation and is cooperative. Mood is pleasant. No tics or facial fasciculation. Speech is fluent, words are clear. Health Promotion

Statistics For Nursing Research: A Workbook For Evidence-Based Practice

Complete Exercises 6, 8, and 9 in Statistics for Nursing Research: A Workbook for Evidence-Based Practice, and submit as directed by the instructor.

Use MS Word to complete “Questions to be Graded: Exercise 27” in Statistics for Nursing Research: A Workbook for Evidence-Based Practice. Submit your work in SPSS by copying the output and pasting into the Word document. In addition to the SPSS output, please include explanations of the results where appropriate. Statistics For Nursing Research: A Workbook For Evidence-Based Practice

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Complete Exercises 6, 8, and 9 in Statistics for Nursing Research: A Workbook for Evidence-Based Practice, and submit as directed by the instructor.

Use MS Word to complete “Questions to be Graded: Exercise 27” in Statistics for Nursing Research: A Workbook for Evidence-Based Practice. Submit your work in SPSS by copying the output and pasting into the Word document. In addition to the SPSS output, please include explanations of the results where appropriate. Statistics For Nursing Research: A Workbook For Evidence-Based Practice

Practicum – Assessing Client Family Progress

Using the client family from your Week 3 Practicum Assignment address in a progress note (without violating HIPAA regulations) the following:

· Treatment modality used and efficacy of approach

· Progress and/or lack of progress toward the mutually agreed-upon client goals  

  (reference the treatment plan for progress toward goals)

· Modification(s) of the treatment plan that were made based on progress/lack of  

  progress

· Clinical impressions regarding diagnosis and or symptoms

· Relevant psychosocial information or changes from original assessment (e.g.,   

  marriage, separation/divorce, new relationships, move to a new  

  house/apartment, change of job) Practicum – Assessing Client Family Progress

· Safety issues

· Clinical emergencies/actions taken

· Medications used by the patient, even if the nurse psychotherapist was not the 

  one prescribing them

· Treatment compliance/lack of compliance

· Clinical consultations

· Collaboration with other professionals (e.g., phone consultations with physicians, 

   psychiatrists, marriage/family therapists)

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· The therapist’s recommendations, including whether the client agreed to the  

  recommendations

· Referrals made/reasons for making referrals

· Termination/issues that are relevant to the termination process (e.g., client 

   informed of loss of insurance or refusal of insurance company to pay for 

   continued sessions)

· Issues related to consent and/or informed consent for treatment

· Information concerning child abuse and/or elder or dependent adult abuse, 

  including documentation as to where the abuse was reported

· Information reflecting the therapist’s exercise of clinical judgment

Note: Be sure to exclude any information that should not be found in a discoverable progress note. Practicum – Assessing Client Family Progress

                       Part 2: Privileged Note

· Based on this week’s readings, prepare a privileged psychotherapy note that you would use to document your impressions of therapeutic progress/therapy sessions for your client family from the Week 3 Practicum Assignment. (SEE ATTACHED WEEK 3 NOTE),

In your progress note, address the following:

· Include items that you would not typically include in a note as part of the clinical record.

· Explain why the items you included in the privileged note would not be included in the client family’s progress note.

· Explain whether your preceptor uses privileged notes. If so, describe the type of information he or she might include. If not, explain why. Practicum – Assessing Client Family Progress

Nursing Care Plan

Question 1 A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who has multiple sclerosis. An expected outcome for the patient who is receiving glatiramer would be a decrease in

A) chest pain
B) fatigue
C) breathing difficulties
D) heart palpitations

Question 2 A nurse is teaching a patient about his newly prescribed drug, colchicine, for gout. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

A) Green beans
B) Shrimp
C) Eggs
D) Milk

Question 3 A patient with type 1 diabetes has been admitted to the hospital for orthopedic surgery and the care team anticipates some disruptions to the patient’s blood glucose levels in the days following surgery. Which of the following insulin regimens is most likely to achieve adequate glycemic control?

A) Small doses of long-acting insulin administered four to five times daily
B) Doses of basal insulin twice daily with regular insulin before each meal
C) Large doses of rapid-acting insulin combined with long-acting insulin each morning and evening
D) Divided doses of intermediate-acting insulin every 2 hours, around the clock

Question 4 A 65-year-old woman has an advanced form of rheumatoid arthritis. Her treatment includes a regular dosage of methotrexate. The nurse will advise her to take which of the following vitamin supplements while taking the drug?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D

Question 5 A 49-year-old woman has been diagnosed with myalgia. The physician has recommended aspirin. The patient is concerned that the aspirin will upset her stomach. The nurse will encourage the patient to

A) crush the tablet before swallowing
B) swallow the tablet whole
C) swallow the tablet with milk or food
D) avoid drinking milk for 3 hours after swallowing the tablet

Question 6 A nurse is working with a 57-year-old man who is a former intravenous drug abuser. He has been prescribed a weekly dosage of methotrexate for his rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following will the nurse include in her teaching plan for this patient?

A) Avoid high-fat foods
B) Drink plenty of water every day
C) Take the tablets before bedtime
D) Avoid red meat

Question 7 A male patient with a diagnosis of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is in the clinic to discuss with the nurse the possibility of self-administration of glatiramer. During the patient education session for self-administration, the nurse will emphasize

A) the need to rotate the injection site of the drug
B) the need to avoid crushing the tablet
C) the need to place the tablet under the tongue
D) the need to use only the thigh muscle for the drug injection site

Question 8 A patient in need of myocardial infarction prophylaxis has been prescribed sulfinpyrazone for gout. Which of the following will the nurse monitor the patient most closely for?

A) Hypothermia
B) Hypotension
C) Renal dysfunction
D) Bleeding

Question 9 A nurse will monitor which of the following when assigned to a patient taking allopurinol for chronic gout who visits the clinic every 2 months?

A) Liver function tests
B) Blood sugar levels
C) Blood pressure
D) Body temperature

Question 10 Which of the following would be the most important safety-related instruction for a nurse to give to a patient taking baclofen (Lioresal)?

A) Do not walk or drive after taking the drug
B) Discontinue the use of alcohol
C) Learn to self-administer the drug
D) Take a laxative when needed

Question 11 A diabetic patient being treated for obesity tells the nurse that he is having adverse effects from his drug therapy. The patient has been taking dextroamphetamine for 2 weeks as adjunct therapy. Which of the following adverse effects would need the nurse’s immediate attention?

A) Decreased libido
B) Increased blood glucose
C) Dry eyes
D) Jittery feeling

Question 12 A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) has been prescribed.Before the drug therapy is started, the nurse will assess for which of the following?

A) History of taking anticoagulant drugs
B) Allergy to seafood
C) Hirsutism
D) The patient’s age

Question 13 A nurse is instructing a patient in the administration of regular insulin by the subcutaneous route. Which of the following strategies would the nurse suggest if the goal is to promote absorption of the regular insulin?

A) Rotate injection sites by using the arm one day, the stomach the next day, and the thigh the day after and then repeating the cycle
B) Select one injection site for regular insulin injections and use it exclusively
C) Administer the medication 30 to 60 minutes after a meal
D) Select one anatomic area for regular insulin injections and then use serial locations within that area.

Question 14 A nurse is caring for a male patient who has a spinal cord injury due to a motorcycle accident. He has been taking dantrolene (Dantrium) for 2 weeks. The nurse will monitor which of the following?

A) Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time
B) Urine specific gravity
C) Alanine aminotransferase and total bilirubin levels
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone levels

Question 15 The nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation of a new resident of a long-term care facility. The nurse notes that the resident takes allopurinol on a daily basis for the treatment of gout.What is the primary purpose of this drug?

A) To balance urate concentration and prevent gout attacks
B) To promote the remodeling of damaged synovium
C) To potentiate the metabolism of dietary purines
D) To achieve pain relief in joints affected by gout

Question 16 A 33-year-old man has developed acute gouty arthritis. He has been prescribed colchicine. When developing a care plan for this patient, which factor will be most important for the nurse to consider?

A) Dietary habits
B) Work environment
C) Typical daily fluid intake
D) Ethnicity

Question 17 During long-term desmopressin therapy in a 48-year-old woman, it will be most important for the nurse to assess which of the following?

A) The patient’s environment
B) The patient’s diet
C) The condition of the patient’s skin
D) The condition of the patient’s nasal passages

Question 18 A patient is taking gabapentin (Neurontin) for spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following should be the priority for monitoring?

A) Hepatic function
B) Cardiac function
C) Respiratory function
D) Renal function

Question 19 Following an assessment by her primary care provider, a 70-year-old resident of an assisted living facility has begun taking daily oral doses of levothyroxine. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the nurse to withhold a scheduled dose of levothyroxine?

A) The resident has not eaten breakfast because of a recent loss of appetite
B) The resident’s apical heart rate is 112 beats/minute with a regular rhythm
C) The resident had a fall during the night while transferring from her bed to her bathroom
D) The resident received her annual influenza vaccination the previous day

Question 20 To minimize the risk of adverse effects of glucagon when given to an unconscious diabetic patient, as the patient regains consciousness, the nurse should

A) administer calcium supplements
B) position the patient in the side-lying position
C) administer carbohydrates
D) monitor for nausea and vomiting

Question 21 A 34-year-old male patient is prescribed methimazole (MMI). The nurse will advise him to report which of the following immediately?

A) Vertigo
B) Intolerance to cold
C) Loss of appetite
D) Epigastric distress

Question 22 A male patient is to begin glyburide (Diabeta) for type 2 diabetes. Before the drug therapy begins, a priority action by the nurse will be to assess the patient’s

A) blood pressure
B) potassium level
C) use of alcohol
D) use of salt in his diet

Question 23 A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 2 years ago and has experienced a recent exacerbation of her symptoms, including muscle spasticity. Consequently, she has been prescribed Dantrolene (Dantrium). In light of this new addition to her drug regimen, what teaching point should the woman’s nurse provide?

A) “This will likely relieve your muscle spasms but you’ll probably develop a certain amount of dependence on the drug over time.”
B) “We’ll need to closely monitor your blood sugar levels for the next week.”
C) “There’s a small risk that you might experience some hallucinations in the first few days that you begin taking this drug.”
D) “You might find that this drug exacerbates some of your muscle weakness while it relieves your spasticity.”

Question 24 A nurse is instructing a patient who was recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis about dantrolene (Dantrium). The patient is a 38-year-old-male and the foreman for a construction company. In order to minimize one important adverse effect of the drug, the nurse will give the patient which of the following instructions?

A) Eat a high-protein diet
B) Decrease the dosage if any adverse effect is experienced
C) Wear appropriate clothing and sunscreen whenever he is in direct sunlight
D) Have a complete blood cell count done weekly

Question 25 A 40-year-old woman with a diagnosis of fibromyalgia has been prescribed cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) as an adjunct to her existing drug regimen. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when updating the nursing care plan for this patient?

A) Risk for Injury related to CNS depressant effects
B) Diarrhea related to anticholinergic effects
C) Altered Nutrition, Less than Body Requirements, related to appetite suppression
D) Impaired Swallowing related to increased muscle tone

Question 26 A 70-year-old woman who is on long-term ibuprofen therapy for osteoarthritis has returned to the clinic for her regular 6-month visit. In the last couple of months, she has been having increasing periods of abdominal pain. The nurse suspects that this pain may be related to

A) anemia
B) peptic ulcer disease or gastritis
C) interstitial nephritis
D) constipation

Question 27 A 13-year-old patient has juvenile arthritis. He has recently had oral surgery and was told by the surgeon to take aspirin for the pain. The nurse will monitor for which of the following?

A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Agranulocytosis

Question 28 A nurse is caring for a 61-year-old man who has had a severe attack of gout while in the hospital for food poisoning. The nurse administers colchicine intravenously in order to

A) avoid aggravating the gastrointestinal tract
B) ensure quick distribution of the drug
C) prevent the risk of infection or bleeding
D) minimize the risk of depressed bone marrow function

Question 29 A 66-year-old woman has experienced a significant decline in her quality of life as a result of worsening rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician has prescribed etanercept and the nurse is responsible for facilitating this new aspect of the patient’s drug regimen. This will involve the administration of

A) daily, outpatient intravenous therapy
B) daily, oral administration
C) weekly subcutaneous injections
D) weekly administration of an enteric coated tablet

Question 30 A clinic nurse is following a 9-year-old boy who is taking somatropin. Which of the following will the nurse monitor periodically?

A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels
B) Height
C) Dehydration
D) Water retention

Decision-Making Models

Question

Week 6 quiz

Question 1

A 65-year-old woman has an advanced form of rheumatoid arthritis. Her treatment includes a regular dosage of methotrexate. The nurse will advise her to take which of the following vitamin supplements while taking the drug?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D

Question 2

To minimize the risk of adverse effects of glucagon when given to an unconscious diabetic patient, as the patient regains consciousness, the nurse should

A) administer calcium supplements.
B) position the patient in the side-lying position.
C) administer carbohydrates.
D) monitor for nausea and vomiting.

Question 3

A female patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus has been experiencing increasing neuropathic pain in recent months, a symptom that has not responded appreciably to conventional analgesics. The patient’s care provider has begun treatment with gabapentin (Neurontin). How is the addition of this drug likely to influence the management of the patient’s existing drug regimen?

A) The patient may be required to temporarily hold her other medications until a stable serum level of gabapentin is achieved.
B) It is unlikely to influence the patient’s other medications because gabapentin does not interact with other drugs.
C) Gabapentin is contraindicated with the use of exogenous insulin.
D) The patient’s medication-related risk for renal failure must be assessed prior to the use of gabapentin.

Question 4

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) has been prescribed. Before the drug therapy is started, the nurse will assess for which of the following?

A) History of taking anticoagulant drugs
B) Allergy to seafood
C) Hirsutism
D) The patient’s age

Question 5

A nurse is caring for a male patient who has a spinal cord injury due to a motorcycle accident. He has been taking dantrolene (Dantrium) for 2 weeks. The nurse will monitor which of the following?

A) Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time
B) Urine specific gravity
C) Alanine aminotransferase and total bilirubin levels
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone levels

Question 6

A nurse is assessing a patient who has come to the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The patient states that he has a history of opioid addiction and does not want to take any drug that “puts me at risk of becoming physically dependent.” Which of the following medications would the nurse question, if ordered?

A) Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
B) Orphenadrine (Norflex)
C) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
D) Metaxalone (Skelaxin)

Question 7

A 40-year-old woman with a diagnosis of fibromyalgia has been prescribed cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) as an adjunct to her existing drug regimen. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when updating the nursing care plan for this patient?

A) Risk for Injury related to CNS depressant effects
B) Diarrhea related to anticholinergic effects
C) Altered Nutrition, Less than Body Requirements, related to appetite suppression
D) Impaired Swallowing related to increased muscle tone

Question 8

A nurse is working with a 57-year-old man who is a former intravenous drug abuser. He has been prescribed a weekly dosage of methotrexate for his rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following will the nurse include in her teaching plan for this patient?

A) Avoid high-fat foods
B) Drink plenty of water every day
C) Take the tablets before bedtime
D) Avoid red meat

Question 9

Following an assessment by her primary care provider, a 70-year-old resident of an assisted living facility has begun taking daily oral doses of levothyroxine. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the nurse to withhold a scheduled dose of levothyroxine?

A) The resident has not eaten breakfast because of a recent loss of appetite
B) The resident’s apical heart rate is 112 beats/minute with a regular rhythm
C) The resident had a fall during the night while transferring from her bed to her bathroom
D) The resident received her annual influenza vaccination the previous day

Question 10

A nurse is caring for a 61-year-old man who has had a severe attack of gout while in the hospital for food poisoning. The nurse administers colchicine intravenously in order to

A) avoid aggravating the gastrointestinal tract.
B) ensure quick distribution of the drug.
C) prevent the risk of infection or bleeding.
D) minimize the risk of depressed bone marrow function.

Question 11

A patient receives 25 units of NPH insulin at 7.AM. At what time of day should the nurse advise the patient to be most alert for a potential hypoglycemic reaction?

A) After breakfast
B) Before lunch
C) Late afternoon
D) Bedtime

Question 12

A male patient is to begin glyburide (Diabeta) for type 2 diabetes. Before the drug therapy begins, a priority action by the nurse will be to assess the patient’s

A) blood pressure.
B) potassium level.
C) use of alcohol.
D) use of salt in his diet.

Question 13

A male patient with a diagnosis of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is in the clinic to discuss with the nurse the possibility of self-administration of glatiramer. During the patient education session for self-administration, the nurse will emphasize

A) the need to rotate the injection site of the drug.
B) the need to avoid crushing the tablet.
C) the need to place the tablet under the tongue.
D) the need to use only the thigh muscle for the drug injection site.

Question 14

A diabetic patient being treated for obesity tells the nurse that he is having adverse effects from his drug therapy. The patient has been taking dextroamphetamine for 2 weeks as adjunct therapy. Which of the following adverse effects would need the nurse’s immediate attention?

A) Decreased libido
B) Increased blood glucose
C) Dry eyes
D) Jittery feeling

Question 15

A patient with diabetes has had a cough for 1 week and has been prescribed a cough syrup (an expectorant). What special instructions should the nurse include in the patient teaching for this situation?

A) Wash hands before and after taking the medicine
B) Keep track of any gastrointestinal tract infections
C) Monitor glucose levels closely
D) Note the time the medicine is taken each day

Question 16

A 13-year-old patient has juvenile arthritis. He has recently had oral surgery and was told by the surgeon to take aspirin for the pain. The nurse will monitor for which of the following?

A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Agranulocytosis

Question 17

A nurse has been invited to speak to a support group for persons with movement disorders and their families. Which of the following statements by the nurse addresses the chronic nature of these diseases and the relevant drug therapies?

A) “Drug therapy can consist of one or more drugs to eliminate the symptoms of these diseases.”
B) “Drugs do not cure these disorders; they instead enhance quality of life.”
C) “Persons of all cultures are treated similarly and respond in similar ways to treatment.”
D) “Drugs used to treat these disorders always pose a risk of severe liver and kidney dysfunction.”

Question 18

A patient in need of myocardial infarction prophylaxis has been prescribed sulfinpyrazone for gout. Which of the following will the nurse monitor the patient most closely for?

A) Hypothermia
B) Hypotension
C) Renal dysfunction
D) Bleeding

Question 19

A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who has multiple sclerosis. An expected outcome for the patient who is receiving glatiramer would be a decrease in

A) chest pain.
B) fatigue.
C) breathing difficulties.
D) heart palpitations.

Question 20

A 32-year-old female patient is taking tizanidine (Zanaflex) for spasticity related to her multiple sclerosis. The nurse will inform the patient and her husband that the adverse effect that poses the greatest safety risk to the patient is

A) constipation.
B) dry mouth.
C) fatigue.
D) hypotension.

Question 21

A 34-year-old male patient is prescribed methimazole (MMI).The nurse will advise him to report which of the following immediately?

A) Vertigo
B) Intolerance to cold
C) Loss of appetite
D) Epigastric distress

Question 22

A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 2 years ago and has experienced a recent exacerbation of her symptoms, including muscle spasticity. Consequently, she has been prescribed Dantrolene (Dantrium).In light of this new addition to her drug regimen, what teaching point should the woman’s nurse provide?

A) “This will likely relieve your muscle spasms but you’ll probably develop a certain amount of dependence on the drug over time.”
B) “We’ll need to closely monitor your blood sugar levels for the next week.”
C) “There’s a small risk that you might experience some hallucinations in the first few days that you begin taking this drug.”
D) “You might find that this drug exacerbates some of your muscle weakness while it relieves your spasticity.”

Question 23

A patient with type 1 diabetes has been admitted to the hospital for orthopedic surgery and the care team anticipates some disruptions to the patient’s blood glucose levels in the days following surgery. Which of the following insulin regimens is most likely to achieve adequate glycemic control?

A) Small doses of long-acting insulin administered four to five times daily
B) Doses of basal insulin twice daily with regular insulin before each meal
C) Large doses of rapid-acting insulin combined with long-acting insulin each morning and evening
D) Divided doses of intermediate-acting insulin every 2 hours, around the clock

Question 24

During long-term desmopressin therapy in a 48-year-old woman, it will be most important for the nurse to assess which of the following?

A) The patient’s environment
B) The patient’s diet
C) The condition of the patient’s skin
D) The condition of the patient’s nasal passages

Question 25

A 49-year-old woman has been diagnosed with myalgia. The physician has recommended aspirin. The patient is concerned that the aspirin will upset her stomach. The nurse will encourage the patient to

A) crush the tablet before swallowing.
B) swallow the tablet whole.
C) swallow the tablet with milk or food.
D) avoid drinking milk for 3 hours after swallowing the tablet.

Question 26

A nurse will instruct a patient taking allopurinol to take each dose

A) at night.
B) first thing in the morning.
C) after a meal.
D) before a meal.

Question 27

The nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation of a new resident of a long-term care facility. The nurse notes that the resident takes allopurinol on a daily basis for the treatment of gout. What is the primary purpose of this drug?

A) To balance urate concentration and prevent gout attacks
B) To promote the remodeling of damaged synovium
C) To potentiate the metabolism of dietary purines
D) To achieve pain relief in joints affected by gout

Question 28

A nurse is teaching a patient about his newly prescribed drug, colchicine, for gout. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

A) Green beans
B) Shrimp
C) Eggs
D) Milk

Question 29

A nurse is instructing a patient who was recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis about dantrolene (Dantrium). The patient is a 38-year-old-male and the foreman for a construction company. In order to minimize one important adverse effect of the drug, the nurse will give the patient which of the following instructions?

A) Eat a high-protein diet
B) Decrease the dosage if any adverse effect is experienced
C) Wear appropriate clothing and sunscreen whenever he is in direct sunlight
D) Have a complete blood cell count done weekly

Question 30

A 33-year-old man has developed acute gouty arthritis. He has been prescribed colchicine. When developing a care plan for this patient, which factor will be most important for the nurse to consider?

A) Dietary habits
B) Work environment
C) Typical daily fluid intake
D) Ethnicity

Nursing Roles Graphic Organizer

 Use the “Nursing Roles Graphic Organizer Template” to differentiate how advanced registered nurse roles relate to and collaborate with different areas of nursing practice. Compare your future role with one of the following: nurse educator; nurse leader; family nurse practitioner; acute care nurse practitioner; graduate nurse with an emphasis/specialty in public health, health care administration, business, or informatics; clinical nurse specialist; doctor of nursing practice. Indicate in the appropriate columns on the template which roles you are comparing. 

Nursing Co-ordination

Question 1 A nurse educator who coordinates the staff education on an oncology unit is conducting an inservice on targeted therapies. What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session?

A) Targeted therapies achieve the therapeutic benefits of traditional chemotherapy with no risk of adverse effects.
B) Targeted therapies have the potential to provide prophylactic protection against neoplasia in high-risk individuals.
C) Targeted therapies are significantly more cost-effective than traditional chemotherapeutic drugs.
D) Targeted therapies have the potential to damage cancerous cells while leaving normal body cells less affected.

Question 2 An oncology nurse is aware of the risks for injury that exist around the preparation, transportation, and administration of chemotherapeutic agents. In order to reduce these risks of injury, the nurse should take which of the following actions?

A) Dispose of intravenous lines used for chemotherapy administration in a covered trash can in the patient’s room.
B) Use an IV system for administration that includes needles to reduce the risk of accidental spills.
C) Prime the IV tubing with an approved IV solution rather than with the drug itself.
D) Encourage patients who have been receiving chemotherapy to use a bedside commode rather than a toilet.

Question 3 A patient has just received her first dose of imatinib and the nurse on the oncology unit is amending the patient’s care plan accordingly. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in light of this addition to the patient’s drug regimen?

A) Risk for Infection related to bone marrow suppression
B) Risk for Acute Confusion related to adverse neurological effects of imatinib
C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to exaggerated inflammatory response
D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to changes in osmotic pressure

Question 4 A nurse has administered filgrastim to a diverse group of patients in recent months. Which of the following patients should the nurse observe for extremely elevated white blood cell counts following administration of the drug?

A) A 19-year-old male receiving radiotherapy
B) A 25-year-old female with a diagnosis of congenital neutropenia
C) A 39-year-old female with a nonmyeloid malignancy
D) A 47-year-old male with aplastic anemia

Question 5 A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) will imminently begin a course of treatment with rituximab. In order to minimize the risk of adverse effects, what strategy for administration will be adopted?

A) Admitting the patient to the intensive care unit in anticipation of the initial bolus of the drug
B) Administering diphenhydramine 30 minutes prior to the initial dose of rituximab
C) Administering the drug by slow infusion to two peripheral IV sites simultaneously
D) Administering the initial doses by slow infusion while observing for adverse reactions

Question 6 A 45-year-old woman with acute leukemia is going to begin chemotherapy with vincristine. The nurse is aware that vincristine must always be administered

A) at a rapid infusion rate.
B) at a slow infusion rate.
C) through an IV line primed with vincristine.
D) through a central line.

Question 7 Mr. Singh is a 66-year-old man who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer that has metastasized to his liver. In an effort to prevent infection, Mr. Singh has been prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). Which of the nurse’s following assessment questions most directly addresses a common adverse effect of filgrastim?

A) “Have you noticed any bleeding in your gums or cheeks?”
B) “Do you feel like you’re having any pain in your bones?”
C) “Are you experiencing any waves of cool, clammy skin?”
D) “Have you had any shortness of breath lately?”

Question 8 A 67-year-old man who is being treated for prostate cancer is taking epoetin alfa. The nurse will instruct the patient to

A) stop taking the drug after a 2-week period.
B) schedule an appointment to measure hemoglobin twice a week for at least 2 to 6 weeks.
C) schedule an appointment to check if the patient has a high WBC count.
D) begin taking a calcium channel blocker to treat hypertension, which usually develops as an adverse effect of epoetin alfa therapy.

Question 9 A male patient is receiving heparin by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse will instruct the patient and family members to report which of the following should it occur?

A) A skin rash
B) Sudden occurrence of sleepiness and drowsiness
C) Dizziness
D) Presence of blood in urine or stools

abcd

Question 10 A nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female patient who is receiving IV heparin and reports bleeding from her gums. The nurse checks the patient’s laboratory test results and finds that she has a very high aPTT. The nurse anticipates that which of the following drugs may be ordered?

A) Coumadin
B) Alteplase
C) Ticlopidine
D) Protamine sulfate

Question 11 A nurse has been assigned to a 55-year-old woman who has a malignant brain tumor. The patient is receiving her first dose of carmustine. It will be critical for the nurse to observe for which of the following?

A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Respiratory difficulty
C) Inability to drink fluids for 6 hours
D) Reddish urine

Question 12 A nurse is assessing a patient who has chronic lymphoblastic myelogenous leukemia. The treatment plan includes hydroxyurea (Hydrea). The nurse will assess the patient for which of the following?

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Leukopenia
D) Hypoglycemia

Question 13 A patient’s current course of cancer treatment involves the administration of a conjugated monoclonal antibody. What characteristic of the drug is specified by the fact that it is classified as a conjugated drug?

A) The drug is derived from nonhuman sources.
B) The targeted therapy is combined with another substance that causes cell death.
C) The targeted therapy is combination of a monoclonal antibody, a kinase inhibitor, and an inorganic cytotoxin.
D) The drug is able to adapt its pharmacokinetics to the etiology of the patient’s cancer.

Question 14 An oncology nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of cancer and is discussing with a colleague the factors that contribute to the success or failure of a patient’s chemotherapy. Which of the following cancerous cells is most susceptible to the effects of chemotherapeutic drugs?

A) Cells with a long generation time
B) Cells that lack contact inhibition
C) Cells that have a rapid mitotic rate
D) Cells that lack a blood supply

Question 15 A patient receiving high-dose cisplatin therapy exhibits symptoms of hypomagnesemia. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to help offset the magnesium losses from the cisplatin therapy?

A) Consuming dairy products
B) Consuming chocolates
C) Drinking 2 to 3 liters of fluid a day
D) Consuming potassium-rich foods

Question 16 An older adult woman has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and her care team has identified potential benefits of imatinib. Which of the following characteristics of this patient’s current health status may preclude the use of imatinib?

A) The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus that is controlled using diet and oral antihyperglycemics.
B) The patient has chronic heart failure resulting in significant peripheral edema.
C) The patient experienced a mild ischemic stroke several years ago and had transient ischemic attacks last year.
D) The patient had a total knee arthroplasty several months earlier.

Question 17 A female patient is prescribed oprelvekin therapy to treat thrombocytopenia. Which of the following should the nurse continuously monitor to determine the efficacy and duration of the oprelvekin therapy?

A) Weight gain
B) Platelet count
C) Red and white blood cell count
D) Cardiac arrhythmias

Question 18 During ongoing assessment of a patient receiving 5-FU therapy, the nurse finds the patient’s platelet count to be 92,000 cells/mm3. The nurse should do which of the following?

A) Consult the prescriber for an increase in dosage
B) Consult the prescriber for a decrease in dosage
C) Consult the prescriber for discontinuation of the drug
D) Continue the therapy as prescribed

Question 19 A nurse has been assigned to a female patient who is to begin chemotherapy. The nurse will initiate the prescribed oprelvekin therapy

A) 6 to 24 hours after chemotherapy.
B) 2 days after chemotherapy.
C) 6 days after chemotherapy.
D) 10 days after chemotherapy.

Question 20 A patient with a recent diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is discussing treatment options with his care team.What aspect of the patient’s condition would contraindicate the use of cyclophosphamide for the treatment of leukemia?

A) The patient has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and takes oral antihyperglycemics.
B) The patient has had a history of nonadherence to medical treatment.
C) The patient’s bone marrow function is significantly depressed.
D) The patient has decreased renal function.

Question 21 A female patient has follicular non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and is receiving thalidomide (Thalomid). It will be most important for the nurse to monitor this patient for which of the following?

A) Angina
B) Fever
C) Chills and rigors
D) Bleeding

Question 22 When planning care for a patient who is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for a nonmyeloid malignancy, the nurse should formulate which of the following patient outcomes? (Select all that apply.)

A) The patient will not develop an infection.
B) The patient will not experience bone pain.
C) The patient will be able to self-administer filgrastim at home.
D) The patient will not develop febrile neutropenia.
E) The patient will not retain fluid.

Question 23 A nurse is to use a single-dose 1 mL vial to administer 0.5 mL of epoetin alfa to a 39-year-old woman who is being treated for chemotherapy-induced anemia. Which of the following will the nurse do with the unused portion of the drug?

A) Refrigerate the medication for a future use.
B) Discard the unused portion of the drug.
C) Store the medication in the drug cart for the next dose.
D) Put the medication in the freezer compartment of the refrigerator.

Question 24 nurse is discussing oprelvekin therapy with a male patient. Which of the following will the nurse tell the patient is the most common adverse effect of the drug?

A) Medullary bone pain
B) Papilledema
C) Fluid retention/weight gain
D) Atrial arrhythmia

Question 25 A patient with chronic heart failure has begun treatment with epoetin alfa, which she will receive in her own home from a home health nurse. The nurse should teach the patient to supplement this treatment with a diet that is high in

A) iron-rich foods such as beans and leafy green vegetables.
B) complex carbohydrates and vegetable-source proteins.
C) calcium, such as dairy products, fish and vegetables.
D) protein and low in carbohydrates.

Question 26 A nurse is administering rituximab to a patient via the IV route. The nurse will set the IV pump at 50 mg/hour for the first half hour of the initial infusion. If there are not apparent reactions after 30 minutes of the infusion, the nurse will increase the dosage every 30 minutes by 50 mg/hour until the maximum infusion rate reaches which of the following?

A) 250 mg/hour
B) 300 mg/hour
C) 400 mg/hour
D) 500 mg/hour

Question 27 A 62-year-old patient taking tamoxifen exhibits increased bone and tumor pain along with a local disease flare. The nurse interprets this as an indication of which of the following?

A) A hypersensitivity reaction
B) The tumor responding to treatment
C) Nephrotoxic effects of tamoxifen
D) Cardiomyopathy

Question 28 A male patient is receiving rituximab therapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following would be a priority nursing intervention to reduce the risk for cytotoxicity and tumor lysis syndrome?

A) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal breathing pattern.
B) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal fluid and electrolyte balance.
C) Protect the patient from exposure to infections.
D) Monitor the patient for deterioration in renal function.

Question 29 A patient with a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia has met with her oncologist, who has recommended treatment with the kinase inhibitor imatinib. What route of administration should the nurse explain to the patient?

A) Daily intramuscular injections throughout the course of treatment
B) Peripheral IV administration three times a day for 7 to 10 days
C) Weekly IV infusions over 6 to 8 hours through a central line
D) Oral administration of imatinib in a home setting

Question 30 A 60-year-old patient experienced a sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath and was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism in the emergency department. The patient has been started on an intravenous heparin infusion. How does this drug achieve therapeutic effect?

A) By promoting the rapid excretion of vitamin K by the gastrointestinal mucosa
B) By inhibiting the action of vitamin K at its sites of action
C) By inhibiting platelet aggregation on vessel walls and promoting fibrinolysis
D) By inactivating clotting factors and thus stopping the coagulation cascade

Question 31 A male patient has been on long-term bicalutamide (Casodex) therapy. In order to assess adverse effects of the drug therapy, the nurse will closely monitor which of the following?

A) Visual function
B) Blood counts
C) Pap test results
D) Liver function

Question 32 Intravenous carmustine has been prescribed for a patient with cancer. The nurse should help relieve the discomfort of pain and burning during the infusion by

A) slowing the infusion.
B) decreasing the volume used for dilution.
C) decreasing the total volume of the primary IV infusion.
D) administering a dose of 2 units of bleomycin before carmustine.

Question 33 A middle-aged patient has received a diagnosis of GI stromal tumor following an extensive diagnostic workup. Imatinib has been recommended as a component of the patient’s drug regimen. What patient education should the nurse provide to this patient?

A) “It’s important that you let us know if you develop any significant swelling or puffiness.”
B) “Try to keep your PICC line dressing as dry as possible at all times.”
C) “You’ll likely experience a lot of dry mouth while you’re taking this drug, so it’s helpful to chew ice chips.”
D) “If you experience significant nausea after taking a dose, stop taking the drug and schedule an appointment at the clinic.”

Question 34 A nurse has completed a medication reconciliation of a patient who has been admitted following a motor vehicle accident. Among the many drugs that the patient has received in the previous year is rituximab. The nurse would be justified in suspecting the patient may have received treatment for which of the following diseases?

A) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B) Malignant melanoma
C) Nonsmall cell lung cancer
D) Renal cell carcinoma

Question 35 Mr. Lepp is a 63-year-old man who was diagnosed with colon cancer several weeks ago and who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy.He reports to the nurse that he read about the need for erythropoietin in an online forum for cancer patients and wants to explore the use of epoetin alfa with his oncologist. Which of the following facts should underlie the nurse’s response to Mr. Lepp?

A) Epoetin alfa is normally contraindicated in patients who are receiving radiotherapy or chemotherapy.
B) Treatment with epoetin alfa will likely begin 4 to 6 days before Mr. Lepp’s first round of chemotherapy and continue indefinitely.
C) The potential benefits of epoetin alfa must be weighed carefully against the potential adverse effects in cancer patients.
D) Mr. Lepp’s oncologist should have begun treatment with epoetin alfa immediately after he was diagnosed.

Cardiovascular Alterations

Cardiovascular Alterations

At least once a year, the media report on a seemingly healthy teenage athlete collapsing during a sports game and dying of heart complications. These incidents continue to outline the importance of physical exams and health screenings for teenagers, especially those who play sports. During these health screenings, examiners check for cardiovascular alterations such as heart murmurs because they can be a sign of an underlying heart disorder. Since many heart alterations rarely have symptoms, they are easy to miss if health professionals are not specifically looking for them. Once cardiovascular alterations are identified in patients, it is important to refer them to specialists who can further investigate the cause.

Consider the following scenario:

A 16-year-old male presents for a sports participation examination. He has no significant medical history and no family history suggestive of risk for premature cardiac death. The patient is examined while sitting slightly recumbent on the exam table and the advanced practice nurse appreciates a grade II/VI systolic murmur heard loudest at the apex of the heart. Other physical findings are within normal limits, the patient denies any cardiovascular symptoms, and a neuromuscular examination is within normal limits. He is cleared with no activity restriction. Later in the season he collapses on the field and dies.

To Prepare

Review the scenario provided, as well as Chapter 25 in the Huether and McCance text. Consider how you would diagnose and prescribe treatment for the patient.

Select one of the following patient factors: genetics, ethnicity, or behavior. Reflect on how the factor you selected might impact diagnosis and prescription of treatment for the patient in the scenario.

Post a description of how you would diagnose and prescribe treatment for the patient in the scenario. Then explain how the factor you selected might impact the diagnosis and prescription of treatment for that patient. 

Required Readings

** Huether, S. E., & McCance, K. L. (2017). Understanding pathophysiology (6th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Mosby.

Chapter 23, “Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems”

This chapter examines the circulatory system, heart, systemic circulation, and lymphatic system to establish a foundation for normal cardiovascular function. It focuses on the structure and function of various parts of the circulatory system to illustrate normal blood flow.

Chapter 24, “Alterations of Cardiovascular Function”

This chapter presents the pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, evaluation, and treatment of various cardiovascular disorders. It focuses on diseases of the veins and arteries, disorders of the heart wall, heart disease, and shock.

Chapter 25, “Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children”

This chapter examines cardiovascular disorders that affect children. It distinguishes congenital heart disease from acquired cardiovascular disorders.

** Hammer, G. G. , & McPhee, S. (2014). Pathophysiology of disease: An introduction to clinical medicine. (7th ed.) New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Education.

Chapter 11, “Cardiovascular Disorders: Vascular Disease”

This chapter begins with an overview of the vascular component of the cardiovascular system and how the cardiovascular system is normally regulated. It then describes three common vascular disorders: atherosclerosis, hypertension, and shock.

**American Heart Association. (2012). Retrieved from http://www.heart.org/HEARTORG/ 

**Million Hearts. (2012). Retrieved from http://millionhearts.hhs.gov/index.html 

**National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute. (2012). Retrieved from http://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/

Instructor Requirements

As advanced practice nurses, we are scholars, nurse researchers and scientists. As such, please use Peer-Reviewed scholarly articles and websites designed for health professionals (not designed for patients) for your references. Students should be using the original citation in Up

to Date and go to that literature as a reference. The following are examples (not all inclusive) of resources/websites deemed inadmissible for scholarly reference:

1. Up to Date (must use original articles from Up to Date as a resource)

2. Wikipedia

3. Cdc.gov- non healthcare professionals section

4. Webmd.com

5. Mayoclinic.com

– This work should have  Introduction and  Conclusion

– It should have at least 3 current references

– APA format

– At least 2 pages, references page not included

Worldview Analysis And Personal Inventory

Details:

Based on the required topic study materials, write a reflection about worldview and respond to following:

  1. In 250-300 words, explain the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism within health care.
  2. In 250-300 words, explain what scientism is and describe two of the main arguments against it.
  3. In 750-1,000 words, answer each of the worldview questions according to your own personal perspective and worldview: (a) What is ultimate reality? (b) What is the nature of the universe? (c) What is a human being? (d) What is knowledge? (e) What is your basis of ethics? (f) What is the purpose of your existence?

Remember to support your reflection with the topic study materials.

While APA style is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance

 Worldview Analysis and Personal Inventory

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75.00%

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70.0 %Content

20.0 %Christian Perspective of Spirituality and Ethics in Contrast to Postmodern Relativism

Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is incomplete or insufficient.

Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is unclear. Explanation is not supported by topic study materials.

Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is clear. Explanation is not supported by topic study materials.

Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is clear and detailed. Explanation is supported by topic study materials.

Explanation of the Christian perspective of the nature of spirituality and ethics in contrast to the perspective of postmodern relativism is clear, detailed, and demonstrates a deep understanding of the subject. Explanation is supported by topic study materials.

20.0 %Scientism and Arguments

Explanation of scientism or the explanations of two main arguments against scientism are inaccurate. Details are not supported.

Description of scientism is accurate. Explanations of two main arguments against scientism are unclear. Details are not clearly supported by topic study materials.

Explanation of scientism is clear. Explanations of two main arguments against scientism are clear. Details are supported by topic study materials.

Explanation of scientism is clear and accurate. Explanations of two main arguments against scientism are clear. Details are clearly supported by topic study materials.

Explanation of scientism is clear and accurate. Explanations of two main arguments against scientism are clear and insightful. Details are clearly supported by topic study materials.

30.0 %Personal Perspective and Worldview

Worldview questions are not fully answered.

Each of the worldview questions is answered but is lacking a personal connection or clarity.

Each of the worldview questions is answered with personal connection.

Each of the worldview questions is answered clearly and with personal connection.

Each of the worldview questions is answered clearly and with deep personal insight.

30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format

7.0 %Thesis Development and Purpose

Paper lacks any discernible overall purpose or organizing claim.

Thesis is insufficiently developed or vague. Purpose is not clear.

Thesis is apparent and appropriate to purpose.

Thesis is clear and forecasts the development of the paper. Thesis is descriptive and reflective of the arguments and appropriate to the purpose.

Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear.

30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format

8.0 %Argument Logic and Construction

Statement of purpose is not justified by the conclusion. The conclusion does not support the claim made. Argument is incoherent and uses noncredible sources.

Sufficient justification of claims is lacking. Argument lacks consistent unity. There are obvious flaws in the logic. Some sources have questionable credibility.

Argument is orderly, but may have a few inconsistencies. The argument presents minimal justification of claims. Argument logically, but not thoroughly, supports the purpose. Sources used are credible. Introduction and conclusion bracket the thesis.

Argument shows logical progression. Techniques of argumentation are evident. There is a smooth progression of claims from introduction to conclusion. Most sources are authoritative.

Clear and convincing argument presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative.

30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format

5.0 %Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use)

Surface errors are pervasive enough that they impede communication of meaning. Inappropriate word choice or sentence construction is used.

Frequent and repetitive mechanical errors distract the reader. Inconsistencies in language choice (register) or word choice are present. Sentence structure is correct but not varied.

Some mechanical errors or typos are present, but they are not overly distracting to the reader. Correct and varied sentence structure and audience-appropriate language are employed.

Prose is largely free of mechanical errors, although a few may be present. The writer uses a variety of effective sentence structures and figures of speech.

Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English.

30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format

5.0 %Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment)

Template is not used appropriately, or documentation format is rarely followed correctly.

Appropriate template is used, but some elements are missing or mistaken. A lack of control with formatting is apparent.

Appropriate template is used. Formatting is correct, although some minor errors may be present.

Appropriate template is fully used. There are virtually no errors in formatting style.

All format elements are correct.

30.0 %Organization, Effectiveness, and Format

5.0 %Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style)

Sources are not documented.

Documentation of sources is inconsistent or incorrect, as appropriate to assignment and style, with numerous formatting errors.

Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, although some formatting errors may be present.

Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is mostly correct.

Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error.

100 %Total Weightage