Diseases, Illnesses And Dagnosis

Question 1

A 2-year-old male is diagnosed with Wilms tumor. Which of the following clinical conditions is often associated with this disease?

a. Cystic disease of the liver

b. Aniridia

c. Anemia

d. Hypothyroidism

Question 2

A nurse is preparing to teach about the loop of Henle. Which information should be included? The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for:

a. Sodium secretion

b. Potassium secretion

c. Hydrogen ion reabsorption

d. Water reabsorption

Question 3

A nurse is describing the trigone. Which information should be included? The trigone is defined as:

a. The orifice of the ureter

b. The inner area of the kidney

c. A triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra

d. The three divisions of the loop of Henle

Question 4

When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman capsule together, it is referred to as the renal:

a. Corpuscle

b. Capsule

c. Medulla

d. Pyramid

Question 5

A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis.History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the:

a. bone.

b. gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

c. respiratory tract.

d. ear.

Question 6

A 75-year-old male reports to his primary care provider loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

a. Urge incontinence

b. Stress incontinence

c. Overflow incontinence

d. Functional incontinence

Question 7

A nurse observes on the chart that a patient is admitted with Wilms tumors. A nurse knows the tumors are found in the:

a. kidneys.

b. ureters.

c. bladder.

d. urethra.

Question 8

A 35-year-old female was severely burned and is hospitalized. She is now suffering from acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

a. Prerenal

b. Intrarenal

c. Extrarenal

d. Postrenal

Question 9

A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing obstruction. Which of the following symptoms would she most likely experience?

a. Anuria

b. Hematuria

c. Pyuria

d. Flank pain

Question 10

If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor?

a. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

b. Circulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels

c. Volume of urine output

d. Urine-specific gravity

Question 11

While planning care for a patient who has acute pyelonephritis. A nurse recalls the most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is:

a. Cystitis

b. Renal cancer

c. Urinary tract obstruction

d. Nephrotic syndrome

Question 12

When a nurse is preparing to teach about urine, which information should the nurse include? Just before entering the ureter, urine passes through the:

a. Collecting duct

b. Renal pelvis

c. Urethra

d. Major calyx

Question 13

When a patient’s renal system secretes rennin, what effect will that cause in the body? It causes the direct activation of:

a. Angiotensin I

b. Angiotensin II

c. Antidiuretic hormone

d. Aldosterone

Question 14

Anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of:

a. Blood loss via the urine

b. Renal insensitivity to vitamin D

c. Inadequate production of erythropoietin

d. Inadequate retention of serum iron

Question 15

A 4-year-old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition?

a. Proteinuria

b. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

c. Hematuria

d. Sodium loss

Question 16

A 19-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which she sustained a closed head injury. She is now experiencing detrusor sphincter dyssynergia. Which of the following is the most beneficial medication treatment?

a. Alpha blocker

b. Beta blocker

c. Vasodilator

d. Diuretic

Question 17

A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:

a. cystitis.

b. chronic pyelonephritis.

c. acute glomerulonephritis.

d. renal calculi.

Question 18

A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. While planning care, the nurse realizes that the patient is expected to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by:

a. decreased renal blood flow.

b. decreased peritubular capillary pressure.

c. dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage.

d. stimulation of antidiuretic hormone.

Question 19

A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what could have caused this, how should the nurse respond?

a. poststreptococcal infection

b. nephropathy

c. nephrotic syndrome

d. potter syndrome

Question 20

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

a. Elevated plasma creatinine level

b. Decreased plasma potassium level

c. Metabolic alkalosis

d. Increased urea clearance

Question 21

While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is:

a. urine pH.

b. body temperature.

c. gender.

d. serum mineral concentrations.

Question 22

A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:

a. cystitis.

b. chronic pyelonephritis.

c. acute glomerulonephritis.

d. renal calculi.

Question 23

A 55-year-old male presents reporting urinary retention.Tests reveal that he has a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse?

a. vesicoureteral reflux and pyelonephritis

b. formation of renal calculi

c. glomerulonephritis

d. increased bladder compliance

Question 24

The urologist is teaching about the nephrons that determine the concentration of the urine. The urologist is discussing the _ nephrons.

a. Juxtamedullary

b. Midcortical

c. Cortical

d. Medullary

Question 25

A 42-year-old female is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is discussing dietary treatment. Which information indicates the nurse understands dietary regimen? Treatment includes restricting:

a. Fats

b. Complex carbohydrates

c. Proteins

d. Sugars

Question 26

When a newborn is admitted with urinary tract infections (UTIs), which type of infection will the nurse look for in the newborn?

a. blood-borne infections

b. infections caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

c. yeast infections

d. viral infections

Question 27

A nurse is reviewing urinalysis results and notices glucose is present in the urine. A nurse realizes glucose will be excreted in the urine when:

a. The maximum rate of glucose filtration is achieved

b. The carrier molecules have reached their maximum

c. Glucose is consumed

d. The ability of the kidneys to regulate blood glucose is lost

Question 28

A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by:

a. kidney stones

b. immune complex deposition in the glomerulus

c. inadequate renal blood flow

d. obstruction of the proximal tubule

Question 29

On average the kidneys receive approximately _ of the cardiac output.

a. 10-14%

b. 15-19%

c. 20-25%

d. 26-35%

Question 30

When a nurse is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because:

a. all filtered proteins are subsequently reab-sorbed.

b. the texture of the covering surrounding plasma proteins interferes with reabsorp-tion.

c. filtered proteins are subsequently degrad-ed before elimination.

d. the negative charge of the glomerular fil-tration membrane repels the plasma pro-teins.

Question 31

A 3-year-old female presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs), fever, poor growth and development, and feeding problems.Tests reveal a retrograde flow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters. When giving report to the oncoming shift, the nurse will call this condition:

a. vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)

b. vesicourethral reflux

c. vesicoureteral influx

d. hydronephrosis

Question 32

A 6-year-old male is experiencing urine reflux from the urinary bladder into a grossly dilated ureter and calyces. He was diagnosed with vesicoureteral reflux. This condition would be graded:

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

Question 33

A 35-year-old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic.Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

a. Hypokalemia

b. Hyponatremia

c. Increased uric acid secretion

d. Hypermagnesemia

Question 34

A 27-year-old male has a severe kidney obstruction leading to removal of the affected kidney. Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur?

a. atrophy of the remaining kidney

b. compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney

c. dysplasia in the remaining kidney

d. renal failure

Question 35

When a child is admitted with acute renal failure, a clinician realizes the most common cause of acute renal failure is:

a. glomerulonephritis.

b. obstruction.

c. nephrotic syndrome.

d. hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).

Question 36

A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

a. Nocturnal enuresis

b. Diurnal enuresis

c. Primary enuresis

d. Secondary enuresis

Question 37

While turning a patient with chronic renal failure, which principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because:

a. calcium is lost in the urine

b. osteoblast activity is excessive

c. the kidneys fail to activate vitamin D

d. autoantibodies to calcium molecules develop

Question 38

A 56-year-old male presents with flank pain and polyuria.Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which of the following types of renal failure should the nurse monitor for as it is the most likely to occur?

a. prerenal

b. intrarenal

c. extrarenal

d. postrenal

Question 39

A 15-year-old male was diagnosed with pharyngitis. Eight days later he developed acute glomerulonephritis. While reviewing the culture results, which of the following is the most likely cause of this disease?

a. Kelbsiella

b. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

c. genital herpes virus

d. group A B-hemolytic streptococcus

Question 40

A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, hematuria, and fever. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient is most likely experiencing?

a. acute cystitis

b. renal calculi

c. chronic renal failure

d. postrenal renal failure

Professional Capstone and Practicum course

Students are required to maintain weekly reflective narratives throughout the course to combine into one course-long reflective journal that integrates leadership and inquiry into current practice as it applies to the Professional Capstone and Practicum course.

In your journal, you will reflect on the personal knowledge and skills gained throughout this course. The journal should address a variable combination of the following, depending on your specific practice immersion clinical experiences:

New practice approaches

Intraprofessional collaboration

Health care delivery and clinical systems

Ethical considerations in health care

Population health concerns

The role of technology in improving health care outcomes

Health policy

Leadership and economic models

Health disparities

Students will outline what they have discovered about their professional practice, personal strengths and weaknesses that surfaced, additional resources and abilities that could be introduced to a given situation to influence optimal outcomes, and finally, how the student met the competencies aligned to this course.

Nursing Research And Evidence Based Practice With Picot

Discussion: Nursing Research and Evidence-Based Practice

In your practice as a nurse, you may use procedures and methods that did not necessarily originate in evidence, but instead were derived from informal and unwritten conventions, traditions, and observations. While these techniques may have merit, practices are constantly being updated and contradicted by information from scholarly research studies and professional guidelines. This new information serves as “evidence” for revising practices to improve outcomes across health care.

Based on this evidence, you can formulate a question. In this Discussion, you consider the use of evidence-based practice in your own organization and formulate a question that you will need to answer for your portfolio project. This is called a PICOT question. You will also investigate strategies for overcoming barriers to implementing evidence-based practice (EBP).

To prepare:

Consider a recent clinical experience in which you were providing care for a patient.
Determine the extent to which the care that you provided was based on evidence and research findings or supported only by your organization’s standard procedures. How do you know if the tasks were based on research?
What questions have you thought about in a particular area of care such as a procedure or policy?
Review Chapter 2, pages 31–34 on “Asking Well worded Clinical Questions” in Polit & Beck and consult the resource from the Walden Student Center for Success: Clinical Question Anatomy & examples of PICOT questions (found in this week’s Learning Resources). Formulate your background questions and PICOT question.
Reflect on the barriers that might inhibit the implementation of evidence-based practice in your clinical environment.
Review the article “Adopting Evidence-Based Practice in Clinical Decision Making” in this week’s Learning Resources. Select one of the barriers described that is evident in your organization and formulate a plan for overcoming this barrier.

By Day 3

Post an evaluation of the use, or lack thereof, of EBP in a recent clinical experience. Identify which aspects of the care delivered, if any, were based on evidence and provide your rationale. List your background questions and PICOT question about this nursing topic. Critique how the policies, procedures, and culture in your organization may hinder or support the adoption of evidence-based practices. Identify the barrier you selected from the article and explain how this barrier could be overcome within your organization.

Course Project: Part 1—Identifying a Researchable Problem

One of the most challenging aspects of EBP is to actually identify the answerable question.

—Karen Sue Davies

Formulating a question that targets the goal of your research is a challenging but essential task. The question plays a crucial role in all other aspects of the research, including the determination of the research design and theoretical perspective to be applied, which data will be collected, and which tools will be used for analysis. It is therefore essential to take the time to ensure that the research question addresses what you actually want to study. Doing so will increase your likelihood of obtaining meaningful results.

In this first component of the Course Project, you formulate questions to address a particular nursing issue or problem. You use the PICOT model—patient/population, intervention/issue, comparison, and outcome—outlined in the Learning Resources to design your questions.

To prepare:

Review the article, “Formulating the Evidence Based Practice Question: A Review of the Frameworks,” found in the Learning Resources for this week. Focus on the PICOT model for guiding the development of research questions.
Review the section beginning on page 75 of the course text, titled, “Developing and Refining Research Problems” in the course text, which focuses on analyzing the feasibility of a research problem.
Reflect on an issue or problem that you have noticed in your nursing practice. Consider the significance of this issue or problem.
Generate at least five questions that relate to the issue which you have identified. Use the criteria in your course text to select one question that would be most appropriate in terms of significance, feasibility, and interest. Be prepared to explain your rationale.
Formulate a preliminary PICO question—one that is answerable—based on your analysis. What are the PICO variables (patient/population, intervention/issue, comparison, and outcome) for this question?

Note: Not all of these variables may be appropriate to every question. Be sure to analyze which are and are not relevant to your specific question.

Using the PICOT variables that you determined for your question, develop a list of at least 10 keywords that could be used when conducting a literature search to investigate current research pertaining to the question.

To complete:

Write a 3- to 4-page paper that includes the following:

A summary of your area of interest, an identification of the problem that you have selected, and an explanation of the significance of this problem for nursing practice
The 5 questions you have generated and a description of how you analyzed them for feasibility
Your preliminary PICOT question and a description of each PICOT variable relevant to your question
At least 10 possible keywords that could be used when conducting a literature search for your PICOT question and a rationale for your selections

By Day 7

Submit your Project. It will also be a component of your Portfolio Assignment for this course, which is due by Day 7 of Week 10.

Reference:

Davies, K. S. (2011). Formulating the evidence based practice question: A review of the frameworks. Evidence Based Library and Information Practice, 6(2), 75–80. Retrieved from https://ejournals.library.ualberta.ca/index.php/EBLIP/article/viewFile/9741/8144

2nd part

Course Project: Part 2—Literature Review

This is a continuation of the Course Project presented in Week 2. Before you begin, review the Course Project Overview document located in the Week 2 Resources area.

The literature review is a critical piece in the research process because it helps a researcher determine what is currently known about a topic and identify gaps or further questions. Conducting a thorough literature review can be a time-consuming process, but the effort helps establish the foundation for everything that will follow. For this part of your Course Project, you will conduct a brief literature review to find information on the question you developed in Week 2. This will provide you with experience in searching databases and identifying applicable resources.

To prepare:

Review the information in Chapter 5 of the course text, focusing on the steps for conducting a literature review and for compiling your findings.
Using the question you selected in your Week 2 Project (Part 1 of the Course Project), locate 5 or more full-text research articles that are relevant to your PICOT question. Include at least 1 systematic review and 1 integrative review if possible. Use the search tools and techniques mentioned in your readings this week to enhance the comprehensiveness and objectivity of your review. You may gather these articles from any appropriate source, but make sure at least 3 of these articles are available as full-text versions through Walden Library’s databases.
Read through the articles carefully. Eliminate studies that are not appropriate and add others to your list as needed. Although you may include more, you are expected to include a minimum of five articles. Complete a literature review summary table using the Literature Review Summary Table Template located in this week’s Learning Resources.
Prepare to summarize and synthesize the literature using the information on writing a literature review found in Chapter 5 of the course text.

To complete:

Write a 3- to 4-page literature review that includes the following:

A synthesis of what the studies reveal about the current state of knowledge on the question that you developed
Point out inconsistencies and contradictions in the literature and offer possible explanations for inconsistencies.
Preliminary conclusions on whether the evidence provides strong support for a change in practice or whether further research is needed to adequately address your inquiry
Your literature review summary table with all references formatted in correct APA style

Note: Certain aspects of conducting a standard review of literature have not yet been covered in this course. Therefore, while you are invited to critically examine any aspect of the studies (e.g., a study’s design, appropriateness of the theoretic framework, data sampling methods), your conclusion should be considered preliminary. Bear in mind that five studies are typically not enough to reflect the full range of knowledge on a particular question and you are not expected to be familiar enough with research methodology to conduct a comprehensive evaluation of all aspects of the studies.

By Day 7 of Week 5

This part of the Course Project is due. It will also be a component in your Portfolio Assignment in this course, which is due by Day 7 of Week 10.

3rd part

Course Project: Part 3—Translating Evidence Into Practice

In Part 3 of the Course Project, you consider how the evidence you gathered during Part 2 can be translated into nursing practice.

Now that you have located available research on your PICOT question, you will examine what the research indicates about nursing practices. Connecting research evidence and findings to actual decisions and tasks that nurses complete in their daily practice is essentially what evidence-based practice is all about. This final component of the Course Project asks you to translate the evidence and data from your literature review into authentic practices that can be adopted to improve health care outcomes. In addition, you will also consider possible methods and strategies for disseminating evidence-based practices to your colleagues and to the broader health care field.

To prepare:

Consider Parts 1 and 2 of your Course Project. How does the research address your PICOT question?
With your PICOT question in mind, identify at least one nursing practice that is supported by the evidence in two or more of the articles from your literature review. Consider what the evidence indicates about how this practice contributes to better outcomes.
Explore possible consequences of failing to adopt the evidence-based practice that you identified.
Consider how you would disseminate information about this evidence-based practice throughout your organization or practice setting. How would you communicate the importance of the practice?

To complete:

In a 3- to 4-page paper:

Restate your PICOT question and its significance to nursing practice.
Summarize the findings from the articles you selected for your literature review. Describe at least one nursing practice that is supported by the evidence in the articles. Justify your response with specific references to at least 2 of the articles.
Explain how the evidence-based practice that you identified contributes to better outcomes. In addition, identify potential negative outcomes that could result from failing to use the evidence-based practice.
Outline the strategy for disseminating the evidence-based practice that you identified throughout your practice setting. Explain how you would communicate the importance of the practice to your colleagues. Describe how you would move from disseminating the information to implementing the evidence-based practice within your organization. How would you address concerns and opposition to the change in practice?

By Day 7 of Week 10

This part of the Course Project is due. It should be combined with the other two components of the Course Project and turned in as your Portfolio Assignment for this course.

Note: In addition, include a 1-page summary of your project.

For this final iteration, you will need to:

Submit your paper to Grammarly and SafeAssign through the Walden Writing Center. Based on the Grammarly and SafeAssign reports, revise your paper as necessary.
Reminder: The School of Nursing requires that all papers submitted include a title page, introduction, summary, and references. The School of Nursing Sample Paper provided at the Walden Writing Center provides an example of those required elements (available from the Walden University website found in this week’s Learning Resources). All papers submitted must use this formatting.

ETHICAL DILEMMA ANALYSIS

Collaborate with your team, using Cisco Spark, email, phone meetings, or any collaboration tool you find useful or prefer. In your collaboration, consider the ethical dilemmas below and select 1 in which to conduct a deep drill.

Ethical Dilemma 1: A newspaper columnist signs a contract with a newspaper chain. Several months later, she is offered a position with another newspaper chain, offering a higher salary. Because she would prefer making more money, she notifies the first chain that she is breaking her contract. The courts will decide the legality of her action, but what of the morality? Did the columnist behave ethically?

Ethical Dilemma 2: An airline pilot receives his regular medical checkup. The doctor discovers that he has developed a heart murmur. The pilot only has a month to go before he is eligible for retirement. The doctor knows this and wonders whether, under these unusual circumstances, she is justified in withholding information from the company regarding the pilot’s condition.

Ethical Dilemma 3: An office worker has had a record of frequent absence. He has used all his vacation and sick-leave days, and has frequently requested additional leave without pay. His supervisor and co-workers have expressed great frustration because his absenteeism has caused bottlenecks in paperwork, created low morale in the office, and required others to do his work in addition to their own. However, the individual believes he is entitled to take his earned time and additional time off without pay. Is he right?

Ethical Dilemma 4: Rhonda enjoys socializing with fellow employees at work, but their discussions usually consist of gossiping about other people, including several of her friends. At first, Rhonda feels uncomfortable talking in this way about people she is close to; but then she decides it does no real harm, and she feels no remorse for joining in.

In conjunction with the readings, and within your teams, decide which ethical dilemma you believe is most problematic and why. In your teams, discuss the ideas of “good vs. evil,” “wrong vs. right,” and “ought/should be vs. what is.” Form the readings, discuss the ways in which Augustine and Aquinas would have solved the problem based on lecture and course reading material. In what ways do Augustine and Aquinas differ and why?

You may wish to meet throughout the week to share ideas. Create a report of your findings as individuals and as a team. The report should be approximately 2 pages accompanied by a 2-minute oral presentation, using VoiceThread or a PowerPoint narrated slide show.

Rubric

Ethical Dilemma AnalysisEthical Dilemma AnalysisCriteriaRatingsPtsThis criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePurposeview longer descriptionFull Marks20.0 ptsNo Marks0.0 pts20.0 pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeSupport/Developmentview longer descriptionFull Marks30.0 ptsNo Marks0.0 pts30.0 pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeGrammar, Mechanics, Styleview longer descriptionFull Marks25.0 ptsNo Marks0.0 pts25.0 pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeSlidesFull Marks15.0 ptsNo Marks0.0 pts15.0 pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeOral Narrationview longer descriptionFull Marks10.0 ptsNo Marks0.0 pts10.0 pts

Total Points: 100.0

Strategies that could be used to strengthen the study’s internal Validity and How this would impact the Three Other Types of Validity

Validity in research refers to the extent researchers can be confident that the cause and effect they identify in their research are in fact causal relationships. If there is low validity in a study, it usually means that the research design is flawed, and the results will be of little or no value. Four different aspects of validity should be considered when reviewing a research design: statistical conclusion validity, internal validity, construct validity, and external validity. In this Discussion, you consider the importance of each of these aspects in judging the validity of quantitative research.

To prepare:

Review the information in Chapter 10 of the course text on rigor and validity.

Read the method section of one of the following quasi-experimental studies (also located in this week’s Learning Resources). Identify at least one potential concern that could be raised about the study’s internal validity.

Metheny, N. A., Davis-Jackson, J., & Stewart, B. J. (2010). Effectiveness of an aspiration risk-reduction protocol. Nursing Research, 59(1), 18–25.

Padula, C. A., Hughes, C., & Baumhover, L. (2009). Impact of a nurse-driven mobility protocol on functional decline in hospitalized older adults. Journal of Nursing Care Quality, 24(4), 325–331.

Yuan, S., Chou, M., Hwu, L., Chang, Y., Hsu, W., & Kuo, H. (2009). An intervention program to promote health-related physical fitness in nurses. Journal of Clinical Nursing, 18(10), 1,404–1,411.

Consider Strategies that could be used to strengthen the study’s internal Validity and How this would impact the Three Other Types of Validity.

Think about the consequences of an advanced practice nurse neglecting to consider the validity of a research study When reviewing the research for potential use in developing an Evidence-Based Practice.

By Day 3

Post the Title of the study that you selected and your Analysis of the potential concerns that could be raised about the study’s internal validity.

Propose Recommendations to strengthen the Internal Validity and Assess the effect your Changes could have with regard to the other Three types of Validity.

Discuss the Dangers of failing to consider the Validity of a Research Study.

Sample Test

  1. Question : The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the:
  2. Question : During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender?
  3. Question : What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)?
  4. Question : Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure?
  5. Question : What is the end-product of protein metabolism that is excreted in urine?
  6. Question : What local complication of a gonococcal infection is diagnosed in approximately 10% of affected women?
  7. Question : The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
  8. Question : Treatment for polycythemia vera involves which of the following?
  9. Question : What term is used to identify the movement of fluids and solutes from the tubular lumen to the peritubular capillary plasma?
  10. Question : Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
  11. Question : Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long?
  12. Question : Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia?
  13. Question : Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures?
  14. Question : Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines?
  15. Question : Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
  16. Question : Where are alveolar macrophages found?
  17. Question : Which renal change is found in older adults?
  18. Question : At birth, which statement is true?
  19. Question : When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs?
  20. Question : What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?
  21. Question : Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
  22. Question : Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor?
  23. Question : Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it:
  24. Question : What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?
  25. Question : An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
  26. Question : Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
  27. Question : On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive?
  28. Question : Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process?
  29. Question : Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of:
  30. Question : Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies attacking which type of cells?
  31. Question : A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
  32. Question : Where are Langerhans cells found?
  33. Question : Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel?
  34. Question : The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
  35. Question : Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
  36. Question : Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
  37. Question : What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
  38. Question : What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children?
  39. Question : How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?
  40. Question : Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
  41. Question : What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
  42. Question : What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
  43. Question : In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _ days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is _ days.
  44. Question : Which vitamin improves the absorption of oral iron taken to treat iron deficiency anemia in children?
  45. Question : Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?
  46. Question : Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?
  47. Question : What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing?
  48. Question : Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection?
  49. Question : The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a BMI of:
  50. Question : Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?
  51. Question : Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?
  52. Question : The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone?
  53. Question : What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis?
  54. Question : Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?
  55. Question : The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are:
  56. Question : Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss?
  57. Question : An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?
  58. Question : An individual’s genetic makeup is referred to as his or her:
  59. Question : Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
  60. Question : Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?
  61. Question : What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?
  62. Question : When a woman’s uterus is assessed as protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen, which grade of prolapse does this indicate?
  63. Question : An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?
  64. Question : Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
  65. Question : Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?
  66. Question : Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in panic disorders?
  67. Question : Loud snoring, a decrease in oxygen saturation, fragmented sleep, chronic daytime sleepiness, and fatigue are clinical manifestations of which sleep disorder?
  68. Question : A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to which region of the brain?
  69. Question : It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS):
  70. Question : Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?
  71. Question : What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
  72. Question : A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
  73. Question : What is the blood type of a person who is heterozygous, having A and B alleles as codominant?
  74. Question : What is the leading cause of infertility in women?
  75. Question : Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
  76. Question : When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone?
  77. Question : Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers?
  78. Question : How do the clinical manifestations and onset of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differ from those of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in adults?
  79. Question : The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
  80. Question : What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain?
  81. Question : The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is:
  82. Question : How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature?
  83. Question : In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:
  84. Question : Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
  85. Question : Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?
  86. Question : Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of which nervous system?
  87. Question : The absence of which major hormone is a determinant of sexual differentiation (wolffian system) in utero?
  88. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
  89. Question : The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?
  90. Question : The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
  91. Question : What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?
  92. Question : Which assessment finding characterizes Osgood-Schlatter disease?
  93. Question : In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than how many degrees result in decreased pulmonary function?
  94. Question : What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
  95. Question : Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep?
  96. Question : Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:
  97. Question : Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of:
  98. Question : Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive?
  99. Question : Which statement is true regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production?
  100. Question : DNA formation occurs in which of the cell’s structures?

Benchmark – Capstone Project Change Proposal

In this assignment, students will pull together the change proposal project components they have been working on throughout the course to create a proposal inclusive of sections for each content focus area in the course. At the conclusion of this project, the student will be able to apply evidence-based research steps and processes required as the foundation to address a clinically oriented problem or issue in future practice.

Students will develop a 1,500 word paper that includes the following information as it applies to the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need profiled in the capstone change proposal:

Background

Problem statement

Purpose of the change proposal

PICOT

Literature search strategy employed

Evaluation of the literature

Applicable change or nursing theory utilized

Proposed implementation plan with outcome measures

Identification of potential barriers to plan implementation, and a discussion of how these could be overcome

Appendix section, if tables, graphs, surveys, educational materials, etc. are created

Review the feedback on the Topic 3 assignment, PICOT Statement Paper, and Topic 6 assignment, Literature Review. Use the feedback to make appropriate revisions to the portfolio components before submitting.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide.

NO PLAGIARISM PLEASE, MINIMUM OF SIX REFERENCES.

Health Continuum

Research the Health-illness continuum and its relevance to patient care. In a 1250- word paper, discuss the relevance of the continuum to patient care and present a perspective of your current state of health in relation to the wellness spectrum. Include the following:

  1. Examine the health-illness continuum and discuss why this perspective is important to consider in relation to health and the human experience when caring for patients.
  2. Reflect on your overall state of health. Discuss what behaviors support or detract from your health and well-being. Explain where you currently fall on the health-illness continuum.
  3. Discuss the options and resources available to you to help you move toward wellness on the health-illness spectrum. Describe how these would assist in moving you toward wellness (managing a chronic disease, recovering from an illness, self-actualization, etc.).

NO PLAGIARISM, 5 APA REFERENCE , 1250 WORDS.

Community Teaching Work Plan Proposal (HAND WASHING PREVENTING ILLNESS AND DISEASE)

Note: This is an individual assignment. Applying what you have learned thus far, develop a community teaching proposal designed to address the needs of your community.

Select one of the following as the focus for the teaching plan:

Primary Prevention/Health Promotion HAND WASHING PREVENTING ILLNESS/INFECTION. TEACHING DONE IN A RURAL HEALTH CLINIC CALLED (OMNI FAMILY HEALTH CLINIC).
Secondary Prevention/Screenings for a Vulnerable Population
Bioterrorism/Disaster
Environmental Issues
Complete the “Community Teaching Work Plan Proposal.” This will help you organize your plan and create an outline for the written assignment.

After completing the teaching proposal, review the teaching plan with a community health and public health provider in your local community.
Request feedback (strengths and opportunities for improvement) from the provider.
Complete the “Community Teaching Experience” form.
APA format is required for essays only. Solid academic writing is always expected. For all assignment delivery options, documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

Diseases, Illnesses And Dagnosis

Question 1

A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:

a. Visceral

b. Somatic

c. Parietal

d. Referred

Question 2

An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?

a. Insufficient bile production

b. Gastric atrophy

c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid

d. Nutrient malabsorption

Question 3

In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:

a. acetaldehyde accumulation.

b. bile toxicity.

c. acidosis.

d. fatty infiltrations.

Question 4

Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?

a. Sinusoids

b. Bile ducts

c. Hepatic portal vein

d. Hepatic artery

Question 5

Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:

a. fat-soluble vitamins.

b. carbohydrates.

c. protein.

d. calcium and magnesium.

Question 6

A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

Question 7

Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:

a. children have lower adipose reserves.

b. fluid reserves are lower in children.

c. children have a lower metabolic rate.

d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.

Question 8

A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:

a. Intussusception

b. A volvulus

c. A hernia

d. Adhesions

Question 9

A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:

a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production

b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells

c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis

d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow

Question 10

Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?

a. Right lower quadrant

b. Right upper quadrant

c. Epigastric

d. Suprapubic

Question 11

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?

a. Reflux esophagitis

b. Intestinal parasites

c. Ingestion of salty foods

d. Frequent use of antacids

Question 12

The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?

a. Fecal impaction

b. Pancreatic insufficiency

c. Hyperactive peristalsis

d. Ileal atresia

Question 13

The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:

a. Anemia

b. Aneurysm

c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen

d. Atherosclerosis

Question 14

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _ bleeding.

a. rectal

b. duodenal

c. esophageal

d. intestinal

Question 15

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:

a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels

b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions

c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement

d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

Question 16

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:

a. Constipation

b. Diarrhea

c. Vomiting

d. Heartburn

Question 17

A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:

a. Bacterial infection

b. Viral infection

c. Alcoholism

d. Drug overdose

Question 18

Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:

a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.

b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

c. impaired ammonia metabolism.

d. decreased cerebral blood flow.

Question 19

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:

a. diverticulosis.

b. hemorrhoids.

c. esophageal varices.

d. cancer.

Question 20

A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:

a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility

b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea

c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility

d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility

Question 21

A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:

a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi

b. Gallbladder

c. Cystic duct

d. Common bile duct

Question 22

A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:

a. Infective enteropathy

b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)

c. Mucoviscidosis

d. Ileus

Question 23

For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?

a. Pyloric

b. Lower esophageal

c. Upper esophageal

d. Gastric

Question 24

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:

a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.

b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.

c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.

d. viral infection of the gallbladder.

Question 25

A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:

a. Prolapse

b. Pyloric stenosis

c. Intussusception

d. Imperforation

Question 26

A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _ ulcer.

a. Infectious

b. Cushing

c. Ischemic

d. Curling

Question 27

Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:

a. severity.

b. location of lesions.

c. patient’s age.

d. signs and symptoms.

Question 28

Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):

a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux

b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux

c. Congenital anomaly

d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia

Question 29

The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:

a. Vomiting and distention

b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst

c. Dehydration and epigastric pain

d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding

Question 30

The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?

a. Anemia

b. Jaundice

c. Hypobilirubinemia

d. Ascites

Question 31

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _ diarrhea.

a. Motility

b. Hypotonic

c. Secretory

d. Osmotic

Question 32

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations

b. Abdominal pain

c. Malabsorption

d. Diarrhea

Question 33

A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:

a. Pyloric stenosis

b. Hiatal hernia

c. Gastric cancer

d. Achalasia

Question 34

The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:

a. alpha cells.

b. beta cells.

c. acinar cells.

d. islets of Langerhans.

Question 35

Outbreaks of hepatitis _ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D