MN568 Quiz Unit 2

MN568 Quiz Unit 2

Random Section 1

 

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Which of the following antibiotics provides the best coverage in acute or chronic sinusitis when gram-negative organisms are suspected?

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Question options:

a) Penicillin V
b) Amoxicillin
c) Levofloxacin
d) Clindamycin
Question 2 MN568 Quiz Unit 2 2 / 2 points

A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

Question options:

a) The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b) The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c) Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d) Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 3 0 / 2 points

Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma. What additional medication should she be taking? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

Question options:

a) Inhaled corticosteroid
b) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
c) Systemic corticosteroid
d) Methyl xanthenes
Question 4 2 / 2 points

You are in the park playing with your children when you see that your friend is screaming for help. Her toddler has fallen and there is a stick lodged in his eye. The child is kicking and screaming and grabbing for the stick. You:

Question options:

a) instruct his mother to hold him securely and not allow him to touch the stick, then carefully remove the stick from the eye.
b) stabilize the foreign object and accompany the mother and child to the local ER.
c) find a water fountain, hold the child to the water, and flush the eye.
d) call 911.
Question 5 2 / 2 points

A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

Question options:

a) Gonorrhea
b) Mononucleosis
c) Influenza
d) Herpes zoster
Question 6 0 / 2 points

Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

Question options:

a) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
b) Otosclerosis
c) Cholesteatoma
d) Presbycusis
Question 7 0 / 2 points

Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?

Question options:

a) Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.
b) Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.
c) Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.
d) There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.
Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements regarding TST is true?

Question options:

a) Tests should be read 48 hours after the injection.
b) The size of the TST reaction has nothing to do with erythema but is based solely on induration.
c) It is a type V T cell-mediated immune response.
d) The diameter of the induration is measured in centimeters.
Question 9 2 / 2 points

A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain. On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. These findings are classic signs of which condition? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

Question options:

a) Otitis media
b) Meniere’s disease
c) Tinnitus
d) Otitis externa
Question 10 2 / 2 points

An acutely presenting, erythematous, tender lump within the eyelid is called:

Question options:

a) Blepharitis
b) Hordeolum
c) Chalazion
d) Iritis
Question 11 0 / 2 points

Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis?

Question options:

a) Vasomotor rhinitis
b) Rhinitis medicamentosum
c) Atrophic rhinitis
d) Viral rhinitis
Question 12 2 / 2 points

Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:

Question options:

a) Fungi
b) Viruses
c) Gram-negative bacteria
d) Pneumococcal pneumonia
Question 13 2 / 2 points

You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

Question options:

a) Baker phenomenon
b) Arnold reflex
c) Cough reflex
d) Tragus reflex
Question 14 2 / 2 points

Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than:

Question options:

a) 4 weeks
b) 8 weeks
c) 12 weeks
d) 16 weeks
Question 15 2 / 2 points

As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of ‘cotton wool’ spots can be detected. Cotton wool spots refer to:

Question options:

a) Nerve fiber layer infarctions
b) Blood vessel proliferation
c) Venous beading
d) Retinal hemorrhage
Question 16 2 / 2 points

Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergic rhinitis?

Question options:

a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 17 2 / 2 points

Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity?

Question options:

a) Mild intermittent
b) Mild persistent
c) Moderate persistent
d) Severe persistent
Question 18 2 / 2 points

Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

Question options:

a) 0 to 7 mm Hg
b) 8 to 21 mm Hg
c) 22 to 40 mm Hg
d) 40 to 80 mm Hg
Question 19 2 / 2 points

What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A â-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?

Question options:

a) Penicillin
b) Quinolone
c) Cephalosporin
d) Macrolide
Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which type of stomatitis results in necrotic ulceration of the oral mucous membranes?

Question options:

a) Vincent’s stomatitis
b) Allergic stomatitis
c) Apthous stomatitis
d) Herpetic stomatitis
Question 21 0 / 2 points

Your patient states he has a strep throat infection. Which of the following symptoms makes you consider a viral etiology instead?

Question options:

a) Fever
b) Headache
c) Exudative pharyngitis
d) Rhinorrhea
Question 22 0 / 2 points

The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test?

Question options:

a) Weber test
b) Schwabach test
c) Rinne test
d) Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test
Question 23 0 / 2 points

A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7ϒF, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

Question options:

a) The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b) Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c) A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d) The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 24 2 / 2 points

Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum?

Question options:

a) The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa.
b) Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum.
c) Initially, one piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake.
d) Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy.
Question 25 0 / 2 points

Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

Question options:

a) Glaucoma
b) Increased sperm quality
c) Bladder cancer
d) Eczema
Question 26 2 / 2 points

The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

Question options:

a) HSV type 2
b) HIV
c) Pneumonia
d) Syphilis
Question 27 2 / 2 points

Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course?

Question options:

a) Nuclear cataracts
b) Cortical cataracts
c) Posterior cataracts
d) Immature cataracts
Question 28 2 / 2 points

Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough. You assess her for:

Question options:

a) Asthma
b) Sinusitis
c) Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis
d) Influenza
Question 29 0 / 2 points

Otitis media is considered chronic when:

Question options:

a) Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.
b) There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.
c) Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.
d) All of the above
Question 30 0 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?

Question options:

a) The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.
b) Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.
c) Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.
d) Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.
Question 31 0 / 2 points

Nathan, a 32-year-old policeman, has a 15-pack-a-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily. During every visit, he gets irate when you try to talk to him about quitting. What should you do?

Question options:

a) Hand him literature about smoking cessation at every visit.
b) Wait until he is ready to talk to you about quitting.
c) Document in the record that he is not ready to quit.
d) Continue to ask him at every visit if he is ready to quit.
Question 32 2 / 2 points

Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

Question options:

a) Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b) Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c) If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d) All of the above
Question 33 2 / 2 points

A patient with hypertension comes in and insists that one of his new medications is causing him to cough. When looking at his list of medications, you think the cough must be from:

Question options:

a) Metoprolol
b) Clopidogrel
c) Tadalafil
d) Captopril
Question 34 0 / 2 points

In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?

Question options:

a) Recurrent sinusitis
b) Allergic sinusitis
c) Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy
d) All of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points

The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

Question options:

a) Viral conjunctivitis
b) Keratoconjunctivitis
c) Bacterial conjunctivitis
d) Allergic conjunctivitis
Question 36 0 / 2 points

You are using the CURB-65 clinical prediction tool to decide whether Mabel, whom you have diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), should be hospitalized or treated at home. Her score is 3. What should you do?

Question options:

a) Consider home treatment.
b) Plan for a short inpatient hospitalization.
c) Closely supervise her outpatient treatment.
d) Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit.
Question 37 2 / 2 points

Jason, age 62, has obstructive sleep apnea. What do you think is one of his contributing factors?

Question options:

a) He is a recovering alcoholic of 6 years.
b) His collar size is 17 inches.
c) He is the only person in his family who has this.
d) He is extremely thin.
Question 38 2 / 2 points

Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

Question options:

a) The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
b) The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise.
c) The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
d) The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading.
Question 39 2 / 2 points

Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma. You want to maintain his serum levels between:

Question options:

a) 0 to 5 mcg/mL
b) 5 to 10 mcg/mL
c) 5 to 15 mcg/mL
d) 10 to 20 mcg/mL
Question 40 0 / 2 points

Marta is taking TB drugs prophylactically. How do you instruct her to take them?

MN568 Quiz Unit 2 Question options:

a) Take them on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
b) Take them with aspirin (ASA) to prevent flushing.
c) Take them with ibuprofen to prevent a headache.
d) Take them with food to prevent nausea.
Question 41 0 / 2 points

You have a patient who is a positive for Strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxacillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5 F in office). You also note significant adenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide:

Question options:

a) to refer the patient.
b) that he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic.
c) that his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed.
d) that he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection.
Question 42 2 / 2 points

A chronic cough lasts longer than:

Question options:

a) 3 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 6 months
d) 8 weeks
Question 43 2 / 2 points

Supplemental oxygen for how many hours per day has been shown to improve the mortality associated with COPD?

Question options:

a) 3 to 5 hours
b) 6 to 10 hours
c) 11 to 14 hours
d) 15 to 18 hours
Question 44 2 / 2 points

The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

Question options:

a) Pharyngitis
b) Allergies
c) Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
d) Perforation of the eardrum
Question 45 2 / 2 points

African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

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MN568 Quiz Unit 2Question options:

a) Inhaled corticosteroids
b) Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
c) Leukotriene receptor agonists
d) Oral corticosteroids
Question 46 2 / 2 points

Why do you suspect that your patient may have a decreased response to the tuberculin skin test (TBT)?

Question options:

a) She is on a high-protein diet.
b) She is an adolescent.
c) She has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy.
d) She just got over a cold.
Question 47 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape?

Question options:

a) Pilocarpine
b) Timolol
c) Brinzolamide
d) Acetazolamide
Question 48 2 / 2 points

Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

Question options:

a) African American men
b) Scandinavian men and women
c) Caucasian women
d) Asian men
Question 49 2 / 2 points

The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:

Question options:

a) Chronic coughing
b) Hyperinflation
c) Polycythemia
d) Pulmonary hypertension
Question 50 MN568 Quiz Unit 2 2 / 2 points

The most common cause of CAP is?

Question options:

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Legionella pneumoniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

MN568 Quiz Unit 2

MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – begin Prostate Hypertrophy Essay

MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – begin Prostate Hypertrophy Essay

Topic 3

Mr. E.D. is a 63-year-old retired mail carrier who presents to his primary care provider for a routine follow up for his hypertension. He complains of a 4-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and nocturia. He states that he has been having fever and chills. Denies any recent sexual activity. On examination, his temperature is 99.5 F., pulse 75 and regular, respiratory rate 16 and unlabored, and blood pressure 135/85. He does not appear acutely ill and is in no apparent distress MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy. Examination of the abdomen was normal. A digital rectal exam revealed a moderately enlarged, firm, non-tender prostate gland. He states that he has severe urgency and difficulty urinating MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – begin Prostate Hypertrophy Essay.

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Subjective Data

The use of questionnaire such as the American Urological Symptom Index is helpful to understand the severity of symptoms. The questionnaire reveals an overall score of mild, moderate and severe. Questions include asking the patient over the past month it is felt they did not fully empty the bladder, how often they have urinated in the past month within 2 hours, how often in the past month urinary flow started and stopped, how often in the past month it is difficult to urinate, how often in the past month urine flow is weak, how often in the past month staining with urination occurred, and how often in the past month they were woken in the night to urinate (Dunphy et al., 2015). MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.

Other subjective data would include questioning of when fever, chills first started and if the patient has taken anything to relieve the fever, chills. Family history of cancer and prostate cancer should be obtained from the patient. It is important to obtain history around any recent trauma to the urethral area and prostate.

 

Differential Diagnosis

1) Benign Prostate Hyperplasia

2) Urinary Tract Infection

3) Prostatitis

4) Urethral obstruction/stricture related to trauma

5) Unrelated etiologies- diabetes, neurogenic bladder.

MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy

 

Physical Examination

A focused subjective data collection will assist in diagnosis of benign prostate hypertrophy. A focused physical examination on the suprapubic area with concentration on the bladder should be completed. The practitioner should assess for bladder distention and complaints of pain with palpation. A digital rectal exam (DRE) will assist in determination of nodules and size of prostate based on fingers breath during the DRE. This exam may be contraindicated in patients with neurological anal sphincter disorders (Deters & Kin, 2017). MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy Measurement of the prostate gland can be assessed by fingers breath and reported in documentation. Caution should be taken when performing a digital rectal exam if infection is suspected because of the potential for sepsis by performing DRE.

Diagnostics

Diagnostic testing for this patient should include a prostate specific antigen (PSA) and consideration of a cystoscopy. A PSA level of 4.0ng/mL and lower is considered normal (National Cancer Institute, 2018). A PSA above 4.0ng/mL would be an indication for a referral to a urologist or a needle biopsy to be completed. The National Cancer Institute (2018) points out that twenty-five percent of men with an elevated PSA will not have prostate cancer (National Cancer Institute, 2018). The PSA can assist in helping a practitioner to not overtreat a patient with an enlarged prostate with medications that could affect the patients erectile function.

Laboratory diagnostics for urinalysis, urine culture, comprehensive blood panel and complete blood count are indicated to rule out infection and electrolyte imbalances.

The prostate symptom index is an eight-question test created by the American Urological Association to assist the practitioner by allowing the patient to rate how severe the symptoms can be affecting individual quality of life. An intravenous pyelogram can measure postvoid residual based on the severity of reported symptoms from the patient questionnaire. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – begin Prostate Hypertrophy Essay.

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy is a common condition that affects men after age forty. The prostate gland begins to enlarge during puberty through around age twenty and begins to enlarge again in older years (Dunphy, Winland-Brown, Porter, & Thomas, 2015). The enlarged prostate interrupts the flow of urine and affects a male’s quality of life.  Some studies suggest a high incidence of BPH with obesity and lack of physical activity (Belaynen & Korownyki, 2016). Education for prevention of BPH from the nurse practitioner should include regular physical activity, a low fat diet, and reduction of alcohol consumption. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.

Evidence-based Treatment Plan

Evidence-based treatment plan for mild symptoms (severity score >7) scale and for those with moderate-severe symptoms (severity score >8) that is not affecting quality of life (Deters, 2017). For patients with symptoms affecting their quality of life medication therapy such as alpha blockers, 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors are supported as best practice once prostate cancer has been ruled out.

First line therapy selective alpha₁-adrenergic receptors include silodosin 4 to 8mg daily, or terazosin 1 to 10mg daily (Dunphy et al., 2015). Long-acting alpha₁-adrenergic blockers are also useful in daily dosing and should be titrated gradually. 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors helps to reduce the size of the prostate by blocking the conversion of testosterone to DHT (Dunphy et al., 2015). Slow titration to maximum dosing is important to prevent hypotension with these medications. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.  Saw palmetto acts similar to 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors for nonpharmacological interventions. These pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions can improve quality of life for patients with BPH.

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Patients with BPH should be reevaluated annually and screened for prostate cancer. The nurse practitioner should assess the effectiveness of pharmacological or nonpharmacological approach and severity of the symptoms affecting the patient’s quality of life. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.

References

Belaynen, M., & Korownyki, C. (2016). Treatment of lower symptoms in benign prostatic

hypertrophy with α-blockers. Canadian Family Physician, 62, 523. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy

Deters, L. A. (2017). Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) Treatment & Management. Medscape.

Retrieved from https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/437359-treatment#d18

Dunphy, L. M., Winland-Brown, J. E., Porter, B. O. & Thomas, D. J. (2015) Primary Care: The

Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing. Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis Company.

National Cancer Institute. (2018). Prostate-Specific-Antigen (PSA) Test. Retrieved from

https://www.cancer.gov/types/prostate/psa-fact-sheet MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – begin Prostate Hypertrophy Essay.

MN568-Quiz 4

MN568-Quiz 4

MN568-Quiz 4 Random Section 1

 

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?

Question options:

a) Malabsorption
b) Constipation
c) Rectal bleeding
d) Esophageal ulceration
Question 2 2 / 2 points

The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?

MN568-Quiz 4Question options:

a) Use of NSAIDs
b) Cigarette smoker
c) Ethanol consumption
d) All of the above
Question 3

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2 / 2 points

Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD?

Question options:

a) Eliminate coffee.
b) Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress.
c) Recline and rest after meals.
d) Limit the amount of antacids.
Question 4 2 / 2 points

Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

Question options:

a) Greater than 30
b) Greater than 40
c) Greater than 50
d) Greater than 60
Question 5 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Gastroenteritis
b) Inflammatory bowel disease
c) Lactase deficiency
d) All of the above
Question 6 2 / 2 points

There are four stages of heart failure, classified as A to D, that describe the evolution and progression of disease. In which stage are patients hospitalized or treated with specialized interventions or hospice care for refractory symptoms of heart failure despite medical therapy?

Question options:

a) Stage A
b) Stage B
c) Stage C
d) Stage D
Question 7 2 / 2 points

A 28-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain particular with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely?

Question options:

a) Her age
b) Frequent constipation
c) Flatulence
d) Colicky abdominal pain
Question 8 0 / 2 points

Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?

Question options:

a) T-wave inversion
b) ST-segment elevation
c) Significant Q wave
d) U-wave
Question 9 2 / 2 points

What percentage of patients with angina pectoris will have simultaneous dyspnea, caused by transient increase in pulmonary venous pressures that accompany ventricular stiffening during an episode of myocardial ischemia?

Question options:

a) About 20%
b) About 30%
c) About 50%
d) Almost all
Question 10 0 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report?

Question options:

a) This is a premalignant tissue.
b) This tissue is resistant to gastric acid.
c) This tissue supports healing of the esophagus.
d) All of the above
Question 11 0 / 2 points

A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

Question options:

a) Stage 2 hypertension
b) Hypertensive
c) Normal in healthy older adults
d) Acceptable if the patient has DM
Question 12 0 / 2 points

A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and over-the-counter cold preparations but feels worse. The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point?

Question options:

a) Stool culture
b) Liver enzymes
c) Antihepatitis D virus
d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Question 13 0 / 2 points

A 29-year-old Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly. He has been suffering the pain for 2 weeks and gets temporary relief from Alka-Seltzer®. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up to his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer?

Question options:

a) His gender
b) His age
c) His use of Alka-Seltzer
d) His ethnic origin
Question 14 2 / 2 points

In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the ‘A’ stands for:

Question options:

a) Anticoagulation
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Age
d) Antihypertension
Question 15 2 / 2 points

Which test has long been considered the gold standard for a diagnosis of venous thromboembolism?

Question options:

a) Ultrasound
b) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c) Ascending venogram
d) D-dimer
Question 16 2 / 2 points

Statins are approved for which age group?

Question options:

a) Children over the age of 2
b) Children over the age of 6
c) Children over the age of 10
d) Only adolescents and adults
Question 17 0 / 2 points

George, age 64, has cardiovascular disease (CVD), a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, and a systolic BP of 158. He is being treated for hypertension. You are doing a Framingham Risk Assessment on him. Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?

Question options:

a) His age
b) His cholesterol level
c) His systolic BP
d) The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication
Question 18 2 / 2 points

The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association states which of the following regarding the use of non-statin lipid-lowering agents?

Question options:

a) Nicotinic acid derivatives are effective for lowering LDL and triglycerides (TGs).
b) Bile acid sequestrates increase HDL.
c) Cholesterol absorption inhibitors decrease LDL.
d) There is no sufficient evidence to use non-statin lipid-drugs.
Question 19 2 / 2 points

A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical examination?

Question options:

a) Digital rectal exam
b) Pelvic exam
c) Sexual history
d) All of the above
Question 20 2 / 2 points

When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?

Question options:

a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 21 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with giardia after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

Question options:

a) Vancomycin
b) Penicillin
c) Metronidazole
d) Bactrim
Question 22 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

Question options:

a) B-type natriuretic peptide
b) C-reactive protein
c) Serum albumin
d) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 23 0 / 2 points

In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?

Question options:

a) First-degree AV block
b) Second-degree Mobitz I AV block
c) Second-degree Mobitz II AV block
d) Third-degree AV block
Question 24 2 / 2 points

Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?

Question options:

a) 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department.
b) One more dose of NTG may be tried.
c) The person should be given two aspirin to chew.
d) A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.
Question 25 0 / 2 points

For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset. Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?

Question options:

a) 6 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 10 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 26 2 / 2 points

A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be?

Question options:

a) Obtain a complete history.
b) Order a barium enema.
c) Schedule a Bernstein’s test.
d) Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
Question 27 MN568-Quiz 4 0 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the NP to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease?

Question options:

a) Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea
b) Wakens at night with diarrhea
c) History of international travel
d) All of the above
Question 28 2 / 2 points

Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours?

Question options:

a) Stable angina
b) Unstable angina
c) Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina)
d) Probably not angina but hiatal hernia
Question 29 0 / 2 points

A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?

MN568-Quiz 4 Question options:

a) Very early
b) 3 to 4 hours after perforation
c) Late in inflammation
d) Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.
Question 30 0 / 2 points

Which group would most benefit from statins?

Question options:

a) Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL
b) Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease
c) Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%
d) Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)
Question 31 0 / 2 points

A 46-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?

Question options:

a) CBC with differential
b) Urine human chorionic gonadotropin
c) Barium enema
d) Computed tomography of the abdomen
Question 32 2 / 2 points

The patient with GERD should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities?

Question options:

a) Swimming
b) Weight lifting
c) Golfing
d) Walking
Question 33 2 / 2 points

A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation. The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?

Question options:

a) Multivitamin
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Pepto-Bismol®
d) Ibuprofen
Question 34 0 / 2 points

Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums® with temporary relief. MN568-Quiz 4. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?

Question options:

a) The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.
b) Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him,
c) He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.
d) All of the above
Question 35 0 / 2 points

If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?

Question options:

a) Peptic ulcer
b) Hiatal hernia
c) Costochondritis
d) Pericarditis
Question 36 2 / 2 points

A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness. At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Endometriosis
b) Colon cancer
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 37 MN568-Quiz 4 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen with dark-colored urine, and the urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?

Question options:

a) Increased breakdown of red blood cells
b) Inadequate hepatocyte function
c) Biliary obstruction
d) All of the above
Question 38 0 / 2 points

A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following responses to the history questions would help the primary care physician (PCP) establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?

Question options:

a) Feels relief after a bowel movement
b) Sometimes is constipated
c) Does not defecate in the middle of the night
d) All of the above
Question 39 0 / 2 points

On further questioning, the 21-year-old patient with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose explains that she is sexually active only with her boyfriend, does not use injectable drugs, and works as an aide in a day-care center. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in confirming your diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Hepatitis A virus (HAV) IgM
b) HAV IgG
c) Anti-HAcAg
d) Anti-HAsAg
Question 40 0 / 2 points

A patient has acute pancreatitis with seven of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s criteria. In order to plan care, the NP must understand that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?

Question options:

a) A high mortality rate
b) An increased chance of recurrence
c) A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
d) All of the above
Question 41 2 / 2 points

Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause? MN568-Quiz 4.

Question options:

a) Serum calcium
b) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
d) Complete blood cell count
Question 42 2 / 2 points

What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease?

Question options:

a) Less than 0.25
b) Less than 0.50
c) Less than 0.90
d) Greater than 1
Question 43 2 / 2 points

Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?

Question options:

a) A physiologic split S2
b) A fixed split S2
c) S3
d) S4
Question 44 2 / 2 points

You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome?

Question options:

a) Her waist is 36 inches.
b) Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL.
c) Her BP is 128/84.
d) Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.
Question 45 0 / 2 points

Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?

Question options:

a) It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.
b) Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.
c) It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.
d) None of the statements are true.
Question 46 2 / 2 points

Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

MN568-Quiz 4 Question options:

a) Severe asthma
b) A common valvular lesion
c) Severe hypertension
d) A prosthetic heart valve
Question 47 2 / 2 points

You just started Martha on HTN therapy. The Eighth Joint National Committee recommends that if her goal BP is not reached in what length of time, you should increase the initial drug or add a second drug to it?

Question options:

a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 1 year
Question 48 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is most effective in diagnosing appendicitis?

Question options:

a) History and physical
b) Sedimentation rate
c) Kidney, ureter, and bladder x-ray
d) Complete blood count (CBC) with differentials
Question 49 0 / 2 points

Which pain characteristic is usually indicative of cardiac pathology?

ORDER HERE

Question options:

a) Fleeting
b) Moving
c) Diffuse
d) Localized
Question 50 0 / 2 points

Jamie, age 55, has just started on a statin after having his liver function tests (LFTs) come back normal. He now asks you how often he has to have the LFTs repeated. What do you tell him?

Question options:

a) Initially in 6 weeks
b) Every 3 months
c) Every 6 months
d) It’s no longer necessary for his statin regimen.
MN568-Quiz 4

MN568-Quiz 4

PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper

PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper

Continuing on with step one of the Impact Model is the need to search for the studies to support your project. There are different classes of evidence that can guide changes in clinical practice.
To prepare for this Assignment, review the following:
Write a 2-page paper (exclusing title page and reference page) to address the following:
• For the evidence-based problem that you identified in Week 1 for your project, locate two different articles/sources representing two different types of evidence from the following categories: (a) systematic review, (b) national clinical guidelines and/or (c) peer-reviewed quantitative / qualitative studies. PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

• For each article/source of evidence:
o Summarize the article/source in your own words without the use of direct quotes.
o Using the Peterson et al., (2014) article located in Week 2 Resources address the level of evidence (hierarchy). Then discuss the usefulness of the evidence from the article/source in addressing the identified practice problem. Be sure to site evidence in-text and in a final reference page.
o Describe where your two sources fit into the hierarchy of evidence and explain why PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence.
o Describe the value of these two sources in better understanding and addressing your evidence-based problem.

 

Evidence-Based Practice Paper Guide

 Impact Model

(Source:  Brown, S. (2014). Evidence-based nursing: The research practice connection.  Burlington, MA:  Jones and Bartlett Learning.)PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.

 

Step 1                  Ask and Search

  1. ASK– identify evidence-based practice (EBP) question

Write in PICO format

P –  patient population

I  –  intervention/issue

C – comparison intervention

O – outcome(s)

 

For example, in patients with acute myocardial infarction, does ambulation within the first 24 hours as compared to those who remain on bed rest for the first 48 hours result in increased participation in cardiac rehabilitation following discharge from the hospital?

 

Be sure to have your project approved by your Instructor before continuing with the steps.

 

Assignment Week 1:  Submit the completed Evidence-Based Problem and Question Template to the Week 1 Assignment link. (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

  1. SEARCH

Identify search terms and search engines.  Find a minimum of five EBP articles that have been published within the last 5 years.  Be sure to look at the systematic reviews and the national clinical practice guidelines. PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.

 

Assignment Week 2:  Submit a 1- to 2-page paper describing two sources
of evidence you have found, where they fit in the hierarchy of evidence, and the value of these sources in better understanding your evidence-based practice problem.  Summarize the findings in the literature that you retrieved. Submit to the Week 2 assignment link. (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

 

Step 2                        Appraise the literature

 

Critique each article using the appropriate Appraisal Guide provided in Week 4 Resources. In the final paper, a critique of at least five of the articles used for your project will need to be submitted.

 

PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Assignment Week 4:  Submit critiques of two of the articles using the appropriate Appraisal Guide provided to the Week 4 Resources. (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

 

 

Step 3                         Design the project

 

Describe each step of the project clearly and completely.  Clearly explain the recommended evidence-based change including the setting, health care consumers affected, and the rationale for the change.

 

Assignment Week 5:  Submit a 2- to 3-page paper discussing your EBP plan.  Include the PICO clinical question, recommended change in practice, and the evidence to support the plan. (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

 

 

Step 4                          EBP

 

The final step is to discuss how the outcomes from the plan will be evaluated.  Identify the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the change.  For example, how many individuals following an acute myocardial infarction are participating in or have participated in the cardiac rehabilitation program? The final EBP plan needs to be developed into a power point for posting in the classroom. PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence.

 

Assignment Week 6: Develop a voice over PowerPoint presentation.

Post the presentation in the Week 6 Discussion board by Day 3. Use the week 6 submission link to submit the final copy of the PowerPoint to your Instructor for grading. (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.) PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper

 

Evidence_based_practice

T
he idea of sharing clinical experiences to improve patient care is not new to
nurses. Florence Nightingale published her observations on cleanliness, nutrition,
and fresh air in Notes on Nursing1 in 1860. Her work was the start of evidence-based
nursing practice. More than 150 years and thousands of research studies later, the
use of evidence to guide nursing practice is the expected standard of practice for both
individual nurses and health care organizations. Scope and Standards of Practice2 and Code of Ethics3
of the American Nurses Association both call for nurses to incorporate research evidence into
clinical practice. Schools of nursing have added content on evidence-based practice to their curricula.4 Despite these efforts, barriers inhibit implementation of changes based on published evidence
into bedside patient care. Overall, the barriers involve the characteristics of the nursing profession,
organizational dynamics, and the nature of the research.5,6 Studies7,8 have consistently indicated
that a nurse’s inability to both determine what evidence is ready for implementation into practice
and then successfully develop processes to sustain an evidence-based practice change is a barrier.
Choosing the Best PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence
Evidence to Guide Clinical
Practice: Application of
AACN Levels of Evidence
MARY H. PETERSON, RN, DNP, MSN, NEA-BC
SUSAN BARNASON, RN, PhD, APRN-CNS, CEN, CCRN
BILL DONNELLY, RN, PMBA, BS, CCRN
KATHLEEN HILL, RN, MSN, CCNS
HELEN MILEY, RN, PhD, AG-ACNP, CCRN
LISA RIGGS, RN, MSN, APRN, CCRN
KIMBERLY WHITEMAN, RN, DNP, CCRN
©2014 American Association of Critical-Care Nurses doi: http://dx.doi.org/10.4037/ccn2014411
Evidence-Based Practice
Evidence-based nursing care is informed by research findings, clinical expertise, and patients’ values, and its
use can improve patients’ outcomes. Use of research evidence in clinical practice is an expected standard of
practice for nurses and health care organizations, but numerous barriers exist that create a gap between new
knowledge and implementation of that knowledge to improve patient care. To help close that gap, the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses has developed many resources for clinicians, including practice alerts
and a hierarchal rating system for levels of evidence. Using the levels of evidence, nurses can determine the
strength of research studies, assess the findings, and evaluate the evidence for potential implementation into
best practice. Evidence-based nursing care is a lifelong approach to clinical decision making and excellence in
practice. (Critical Care Nurse. 2014;34[2]:58-68)
58 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org
In this article, we provide a brief history of the involvement of the American Association of Critical-Care
Nurses (AACN) in evidence-based practice, explain the
recent clarifications added to the 2009 AACN levels of
evidence, and provide examples of how to change bedside practice in the clinical setting.
History of AACN Involvement in
Evidence-Based Practice
Currently, AACN is the largest specialty nursing
organization and a leader in the movement to improve
patient care by applying the best scientific evidence. In
1995, AACN began to publish Protocols for Practice, an
evidence-based resource for clinical nurses. Each protocol provides a guide for appropriate selection of patients,
use and application of management principles, initial
and ongoing monitoring, discontinuation of therapies
or interventions, and selected aspects of quality control.
The protocols have covered topics such as hemodynamic
monitoring and care for patients treated with mechanical
ventilation. Subsequently, a volunteer workgroup was
formed to connect clinicians with research to improve
care of critically ill patients. The original research workgroup, known since 2007 as the Evidence-Based Practice
Resources Workgroup (EBPRWG), focused on developing resources that synthesized current research. Resources
were made readily available and in an easy-to-use format
for use in care decisions at the bedside (eg, laminated
pocket-sized cards for clinicians). The work of this group
has continued for more than 2 decades. Current products available to AACN members include protocols for
practice; practice alerts with tool kits, PowerPoint presentations, and audit tools; pocket card references; and
defined levels of evidence for clinical nursing practice.
Evolution of AACN Levels of Evidence
The amount and availability of research supporting
evidence-based practice can be both useful and overwhelming for critical care clinicians. Therefore, clinicians
must critically evaluate research before attempting to put
the findings into practice. Evaluation of research generally occurs on 2 levels: rating or grading the evidence by
using a formal level-of-evidence system and individually
critiquing the
quality of the
study. Determining the
level of evidence is a key
component of
appraising the evidence.5,9,10 Levels or hierarchies of evidence are used to evaluate and grade evidence. The purpose of determining the level of evidence and then
critiquing the study is to ensure that the evidence is credible (eg, reliable and valid) and appropriate for inclusion
into practice.10 Critique questions and checklists are
available in most nursing research and evidence-based
practice texts to use as a starting point in evaluation.
The most common method used to classify or determine the level of evidence is to rate the evidence according to the methodological rigor or design of the research
study.10,11 The rigor of a study refers to the strict precision
or exactness of the design. In general, findings from
experimental research are considered stronger than findings from nonexperimental studies, and similar findings
from more than 1 study are considered stronger than
results of single studies. Systematic reviews of randomized controlled trials are considered the highest level of
evidence, despite the inability to provide answers to all
questions in clinical practice.11,12 For example, AACN
and other organizations have done extensive research
on healthy work environments. This topic would not be
examined in a randomized controlled trial because of
ethical and practical considerations. Randomly assigning nurses to work in various healthy or unhealthy work
Authors PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.
Mary H. Peterson is an educator for Elsevier, Inc Live Review and
Testing, Houston, Texas and a cardiovascular clinical nurse specialist.
Susan Barnason is director of the DNP program at the University of
Nebraska Medical Center in Lincoln.
Bill Donnelly is a critical care staff nurse at Cooley Dickinson Hospital,
Northampton, Massachusetts.
Kathleen Hill is a clinical nurse specialist in the surgical intensive
care unit at Cleveland Clinic, Cleveland, Ohio.
Helen Miley is a specialty director adult-gero acute care nurse practitioner at Rutgers, The State University, Newark, New Jersey.
Lisa Riggs is director of cardiovascular quality at Saint Luke’s Hospital
of Kansas City, Kansas City, Missouri.
Kimberly Whiteman is codirector of the DNP program at Waynesburg
University, Waynesburg, Pennsylvania.
Corresponding author: Mary H. Peterson, 543 Westwood Road, Alexander City, AL
35010 (e-mail: petermh@uab.edu).
To purchase electronic or print reprints, contact the American Association of CriticalCare Nurses, 101 Columbia, Aliso Viejo, CA 92656. Phone, (800) 899-1712 or (949)
362-2050 (ext 532); fax, (949) 362-2049; e-mail, reprints@aacn.org.
www.ccnonline.org CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 59
The purpose of determining the level of
evidence and then critiquing the study is
to ensure that the evidence is credible
(eg, reliable and valid) and appropriate
for inclusion into practice.
environments could have an adverse effect on the quality
and safety of patients receiving care. Therefore, most of
the studies on healthy work environments have involved
descriptive or qualitative study designs. Although the less
rigorous design places descriptive and qualitative studies
at a lower level than that of randomized control trials on
the AACN rating system, the lower level is the highest
level of evidence that the information on healthy work
environments can ethically and practically provide.
AACN Evidence-Rating System
As interest in promoting evidence-based practice has
grown, many professional organizations have adopted
criteria to evaluate evidence and develop evidence-based
guidelines for their members.5,12 A task force formed by
AACN developed the organization’s original rating scale,
which used Roman numerals; lower numerals represented
lower levels
of evidence. In
1995, the
time of the
original AACN rating scale, only a few other organizations had published levels of evidence. Other professional
hierarchies used a reverse order, with lower Roman
numerals reflecting higher levels of evidence. This difference led to confusion among practitioners who were trying to use the original rating system in the clinical setting.13
In 2008, AACN challenged the EBPRWG to review the
rating system and make recommendations for improvement. The result was an alphabetical hierarchy in which
the highest form of evidence was ranked as A and included
meta-analyses and meta-syntheses of the results of controlled trials. Evidence from controlled trials was rated
B. Level C evidence included findings from studies with
a variety of research designs (Table 1). As in the previously published rating system, the 2008 system included
results of theory-based evidence, expert opinion, and
multiple case reports as level E evidence. Rapid
advances in technology resulted in many products being
used solely on the basis of the manufacturers’ recommendations. M was used to represent the body of practice recommendations provided by industry.14
When the 2008 hierarchy of evidence was published,
AACN welcomed feedback from its members about the
changes. Since then, members have asked for clarification on the hierarchy, particularly an explanation of the
rating of systematic reviews. Most rating systems rank
systematic reviews of well-designed randomized controlled trials as the highest level of evidence. Many members thought that systematic reviews were misplaced at
level C within the AACN levels of evidence. The request
for clarification was referred to the 2011 annual meeting
of the EBPRWG for review and discussion.
Changes to the AACN Levels of
Evidence in 2011
The 2011-2012 EBPRWG responded to the concerns of
AACN members by revising the 2008 levels of evidence.
In recognition that the strength of a systematic review
depends on the rigor of the studies included in the review,
the workgroup distinguished between the 2 types of systematic reviews: randomized control trials and reviews of
other studies. Systematic review of randomized controlled
Category
Experimental evidence
Recommendations PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.
Level
A
B
C
D
E
M
Description
Meta-analysis or metasynthesis of multiple controlled studies with results that consistently support
a specific action, intervention, or treatment (systematic review of a randomized controlled trial)
Evidence from well-designed controlled studies, both randomized and nonrandomized, with results
that consistently support a specific action, intervention, or treatment
Evidence from qualitative, integrative reviews, or systematic reviews of qualitative, descriptive, or
correlational studies or randomized controlled trials with inconsistent results
Evidence from peer-reviewed professional organizational standards, with clinical studies to support
recommendations
Theory-based evidence from expert opinion or multiple case reports
Manufacturer’s recommendation only
Table 1 2012 American Association of Critical-Care Nurses levels of evidence with revisions to 2008 hierarchy
60 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org
Clinicians must determine the clinical relevance
of the research (ie, if the results are applicable
to and feasible in clinical practice).
trials was added to level A, the highest level of evidence.
This change makes the AACN system consistent with
other published hierarchies used to rate evidence (eg,
American Heart Association15). Systematic reviews of
qualitative, descriptive, or correlational studies remained
within level C, the highest level for nonexperimental
studies. Also, the distinction between experimental and
nonexperimental studies in the hierarchy was clarified.
A schematic was developed to illustrate that levels
A and B are for studies with an experimental design.
Levels A, B, and C are all based on research (either experimental or nonexperimental designs) and are considered
evidence. Levels D, E, and M are considered recommendations drawn from articles, theory, or manufacturers’ recommendations (see Figure). Table 2 gives an
overview of the different types of research study designs
and the definitions that were used by the workgroup
to guide placement of study designs within the levels of
evidence system.
Levels of Evidence and
AACN Practice Alerts
The level of evidence is used to rate the strength of
the study design, but it does not give clinicians information about relevance to practice. In addition to rating
the studies on the basis of the design used, clinicians
must also analyze and critique the individual studies for
strengths and weaknesses. For instance, the results of a
randomized controlled trial (level B) that did not follow
strict criteria for selecting participants or patients might
be biased. The findings of this type of study would not
be as strong as those of a randomized controlled trial in
which adherence to random selection was rigorous.
Before implementing research into practice, clinicians
Figure American Association of Critical-Care Nurses evidence-based care pyramid: levels of evidence 2012.
a Experimental: testing the effects of an intervention or treatment on selected outcomes.
b Nonexperimental: data are collected, but not to test the effects of an intervention or treatment on specific outcomes.
Based on data from Melnyk and Fineout-Overholt.10
A and B: Experimentala
C, D, E, and M:
Nonexperimentalb
A, B, and C: Evidence-based
recommendations
D, E, and M:
Expert opinion or
manufacturer’s
recommendations
A
B
C
D
E
M
www.ccnonline.org CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 61
should examine individual studies to determine if the
results were obtained by using sound (reliable and valid)
scientific methods. Last, clinicians must determine the
clinical relevance of the research (ie, if the results are
applicable to and feasible in clinical practice). This evaluation or critique takes time to complete and is a learned
skill that is developed with guided practice.
The purpose of each AACN practice alert is to
address both nursing and multidisciplinary activities of
importance. The topic selected for each alert is important to the care of acutely and critically ill patients or
their environments. Practice alerts do the following:
• Close the gap between research and practice
• Provide guidance
• Standardize practice
• Identify and inform about new advances and
trends AACN practice alerts are defined as “succinct,
dynamic directives supported by authoritative evidence
to ensure excellence in practice and a safe and humane
work environment.”16 The alerts are short directives
designed for easy reference. Each one includes the
scope and impact of a problem or topic, expected practice and nursing actions, supporting evidence for
change, additional resources for implementation, and
references. Because practice is dynamic, the practice
alerts are reviewed and updated to reflect any researchbased changes.16
To help members use research findings and apply
them to practice, AACN began to develop practice alerts
that present an overview of the current research evidence PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.
62 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org
Level of
evidence
A
A
C
B
C
C
C
C
C
Type of study
Meta-analysis
Systematic review
If quantitative study
If qualitative study
Randomized
controlled trial
Cohort study
Case-controlled
study
Integrative review
Metasynthesis
Qualitative research
Definitionsa
A technique for quantitatively integrating the results
of multiple similar studies addressing the same
research question
A rigorous synthesis of research findings on a
particular research question obtained by using
systematic sampling and data collection procedures and a formal protocol
A full experimental test of an intervention, involving
random assignment to treatment groups
A nonexperimental design in which a group of
people (a cohort) is followed over time to study
outcomes
A nonexperimental research design involving the
comparison of a case and a matched control5
Reviews of qualitative studies, often taking the form
of metasyntheses, which are rich sources for
evidence-based practice
Interpretive translations produced from the
integration or comparison of findings from
qualitative studies on a specific topic
Investigation of phenomena, typically in an
in-depth and holistic fashion, through the
collection of rich narrative materials by using a
flexible research design
Strengths
Statistical summary of articles of the same topic in research;
process of using quantitative methods to summarize the
results from multiple studies
Review by experts in the field of all the research on a
topic, who rigorously appraise the studies and offer the
conclusion to support an intervention or not
True experimental study in which the researchers are often
blinded to which patients or participants are receiving an
intervention; the strongest design for examining the
cause and effect of an intervention; reduces bias
Prospective longitudinal study that examines 2 groups of
patients or participants (the cohort)
Longitudinal study that retrospectively compares characteristics of an individual who has a certain type of condition that may not be very common; often used to
identify variables that may predict the etiology or the
course of a disease
Compilation of studies that are reviewed and summarized;
may incorporate research and nonresearch articles
Compilation of qualitative studies looking for the common
themes among similar research studies
Method to develop a greater understanding of a topic using
many different methods such as observation or interview
Table 2 Level of evidence, types of research studies, definitions, strengths, limitations, and examples
a Based on Polit and Beck.5 In an experimental design, the researcher controls the variable by randomly assigning patients or participants to different treatment conditions.
In nonexperimental studies, the researcher collects data without introducing an intervention (also called observational).
in a practical, easy-to-read guide for critical care nurses.
The first practice alerts were published in 2004.
A process was developed to ensure that the alerts
represent a translation of evidence and best practices.
Ideas for topics are generated from questions that AACN
members have asked the organization’s clinical practice
experts, AACN leaders, other members, and/or the
EBPRWG. A modification of the Delphi technique, a
widely used method for achieving unified opinion, is used
to rank the importance of clinical questions. Criteria for
ranking include incidence, prevalence, patient care implications, and timeliness.
After topics are generated, the EBPRWG and AACN
determine the names of experts in the clinical area of
interest and commission the writing of the practice alert.
Using standard guidelines prepared by AACN, the clinical experts write the practice alert and submit it to the
EBPRWG for review and feedback. EBPRWG members
seek feedback from their clinical peer network to assess
the congruency of the proposed practice alert with clinical practice and available research. Clinicians are also
asked to comment on the applicability of the practice
alert’s recommendations to patient care.
When the clinical review has been completed, revisions are completed if indicated. Then, communications
experts at AACN prepare the practice alert for distribution to AACN members via the AACN website. Sample
PowerPoint presentations to be used for education are
prepared and can be downloaded for immediate use
(eg, see the presentation for venous thromboembolism
www.ccnonline.org CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 63
PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Limitations
Usually lengthy; combines like research studies
Only as good as the search methods and
databases used
Time-consuming
May require more sophisticated statistical
analysis
Observational
No intervention performed
May include attrition
Retrospective
Not as rigorous as systematic reviews; review
limited to the literature
Interpreted by the researcher
Some believe it to be less rigorous
Examples
Cochrane Reviews
Coventry et al
Sex differences in symptoms presentation in acute myocardial infarction: a systematic review
and meta-analysis. Heart Lung. 2011;40(6):477-491.
Colnaghi et al
Nasal continuous positive airway pressure with heliox in preterm infants with respiratory
distress syndrome. Pediatrics. 2012;129(2):e333-e338.
Dickson
The relationship of work, self-care, and quality of life in a sample of older working adults
with cardiovascular disease. Heart Lung. 2012;41(1):5-14.
Cox
Predictors of pressure ulcers in adult critical care patients. Am J Crit Care. 2011;20(5):364-375.
Fisher
Opioid tapering in children: a review of the literature. AACN Adv Crit Care. 2010;21(2):139-145.
Palacious-Ceña et al
Patients, intimate partners and family experiences of implantable cardioverter defibrillators:
qualitative systematic review. J Adv Nurs. 2011;67(12):2537-2550.
Hall et al PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence
The experiences of patients with pulmonary artery hypertension receiving continuous intravenous infusion of epoprostenol (Flolan) and their support persons. Heart Lung.
2012;41(1):35-43.
prevention17). Audit tools to help monitor compliance
with a change in practice are provided and help clinicians determine if a change is being implemented as
planned. For example, the audit tool for venous thromboembolism prevention provides 3 questions to use
during a chart review to determine if best practices have
been implemented at the bedside.17
Understanding how the evidence in a practice alert is
evaluated and how the recommendations are made provides users the confidence to implement the Actions for
Practice section of the practice alert in individual care
settings. Case 1 is an example of a practice alert and how
information in the alert might be used in clinical practice.
Published practice alerts are reviewed and revised by
the EBPRWG on a cyclical basis (at least every 3 years)
to determine the relevance to practice, the need to
update the references, and to ensure that the recommendations reflect the current evidence. Each practice
alert is reviewed and evaluated by selected members of
the EBPRWG by using a standardized evaluation tool.
The findings are shared with the 10-member EBPRWG
for feedback. Recommendations are made to continue
publishing the practice alert with minimal changes or
to make major revisions based on new evidence. Either
the original expert author or a newly commissioned
expert completes major revisions, and the practice alert
goes through the approval process as if it were a new alert.
Future new and revised practice alerts will also
include information on the search strategy used for the
systematic review conducted by the author of the practice
Some staff members in the intensive care unit
(ICU) wanted to modify the visitation guidelines
for the unit and so approached the nurse manager with their concerns. Many families of ICU patients
desire unrestricted contact with their loved one, and
the hospital guidelines currently allowed 24/7 family
presence in the ICU. However, patients cannot always
communicate their desire for family presence. Some
nurses in the unit were concerned about patient privacy and interruption of therapies, whereas others welcomed the 24/7 family presence. The manager
reviewed the AACN practice alert on family presence in
the adult ICU18 and did the following:
1. Summarized the 4 expected practices in the alert
and compared them with the ICU’s policies.
• Facilitate unrestricted access to hospitalized
person for a chosen support person
• Ensure that hospital policy promotes the presence of a chosen support person
• Evaluate policies to be sure they are nondiscriminatory
• Establish policies to limit family presence when
safety is a concern or presence would be
detrimental to medical therapies
2. Shared the Supporting Evidence section from the
practice alert with the staff members who raised
concerns about the current policy. Discussed the
recommendations for nursing actions and tried to
help the staff gain perspective on the controversies and history behind the recommendations.
3. Asked staff/unit governance members (practice
council) to develop recommendations based on the
Actions for Nursing Practice in the practice alert.
• Are there practices that could be adopted
from the recommendations?
• Is there an opportunity to introduce this topic
during orientation?
• Are there other units who would want to collaborate on this issue?
• Is there a compliance problem with visitation/presence on the part of staff or on the
part of visitors?
After deliberation and discussion, the nurses who
originally brought up the concerns identified several
practice areas on which to focus. They convinced the
nurse educator and preceptors to add content from the
practice alert on family presence in the ICU to the orientation checklist. A multidisciplinary team, including the
medical director and a social worker, participated in
enhancing and clarifying the visitation policy. Staff members determined that the mandate for open access had
caused the original dissatisfaction. After review, they
found a way that fit their workflow to identify the family
spokesperson and communicate the current evidence.
CASE 1
Using a Practice Alert to Revise Current Practice
64 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org
alert. This useful information allows the user to examine
the comprehensiveness of the review, databases searched,
publication years included in the search, and the specific
search terms that were used in deriving the evidence
reported in the recommendations of the alert.19-21
With practice alerts, critical care nurses have evidencebased guidelines and implementation strategies at their
fingertips and know the strength of the evidence on
which the recommendations were based. Case 2
describes using the AACN practice alert on delirium22 to
Patients are often hospitalized and admitted
to critical care units unexpectedly because of
life-threatening illnesses. After admission, the
patient’s environment, daily routines, and control of
activities of daily living are completely changed. The clock
and calendar on the wall are both reminders of time
and date, but the surroundings and the many health care
workers that a patient encounters are unfamiliar. With
the addition of unknown procedures and outcomes and
a wakeful noisy environment, anxiety prevails. These
circumstances all culminate in the patient experiencing
a sense of unknown and a loss of independence,
changes that can lead to challenging, unsafe behaviors.
New studies conclude that awareness and early
recognition of delirium may be key components in care
and management of patients when the goal of care is
fewer hospital days and decreased mortality.23-26 A patient
may awaken in the night, think he or she is at home, and
get out of bed with the intent of going to the kitchen.
Although this behavior may be normal for the patient, it
might be assessed by health care providers as confusion
and the patient might be given a benzodiazepine. Historically, nursing practice to prevent the onset of delirium and
falls has been to reorient the patient to circumstances, institute early mobilization when possible, discontinue use of
invasive devices (eg, urinary catheter), and provide a sitter if
necessary. Calling one of the patient’s family members to
visit or sit with him or her was another common strategy.
Nurses in this medical-surgical ICU recently noticed an
increased use of lorazepam (Ativan) and self-extubations
that they think are related to delirium. A small team of
nurses decided to explore evidence-based interventions
to decrease the incidence of delirium on their unit PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.
The first step was to search the AACN website and
find the practice alert on assessment and management
of delirium. The nurses reviewed the practice alert, found
the information helpful and credible, and decided to post
the practice alert in the ICU. Nurses on the unit noticed
that a gap existed between their current practices in caring for patients with delirium and the evidence. Input
from the nurses was solicited for possible improvements
in practice. Next a committee was formed to make recommendations for changes in practice to nurse leaders
and the medical director. With consensus from nursing
and medical leaders, a new nursing policy was written,
and education about the practice change was planned.
In an educational offering, the nurses explained the
clinical problem to ICU staff members and demonstrated
use of the Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale27 and the
Confusion Assessment Method for the ICU.28 Information
was provided on predisposing and precipitating factors
of delirium and on medications that put patients at risk.
Spontaneous awakening trials; spontaneous breathing
trials; and involvement of respiratory, physical, and occupational therapies for patients receiving mechanical ventilation were included in the planned practice change.
The results of specific research trials discussed in the
practice alert were reviewed for relevance to the clinical
problem; these trials included Maximizing Efficacy of Targeted Sedation and Reducing Neurological Dysfunction
(MENDS),29 Safety and Efficacy of Dexmedetomidine
Compared With Midazolam (SEDCOM),30 Awakening
and Breathing Controlled (ABC),31 and Modifying the
Incidence of Delirium (MIND).32
Plans were made to sustain the change, including
presentation of evidence-based care of ICU patients
with delirium during nursing orientation and clinical competency requirements. The Richmond Agitation-Sedation
Scale27 and the Confusion Assessment Method for the
ICU28 could be included in patients’ assessments at the
time of admission if a patient had predisposing factors
for delirium. The assessment results were included in
daily rounds of those patients who met the criteria for
delirium PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.

ORDER HERE

CASE 2
Using a Practice Alert to Institute a New Practice
www.ccnonline.org CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 65
initiate a new practice with high level of evidence on a
medical-surgical ICU.
Use of Evidence From
Nonexperimental Research
The AACN levels of evidence tool also guides nurses
in rating evidence based on nonexperimental research.
Nurses often must make practice decisions that are
based on the recommendations of experts or manufacturers. Experts in nursing practice have a comprehensive
and
authoritative knowledge of a
particular
area of
nursing. These experts are regionally, nationally, or
internationally recognized as authorities and have
published supporting scholarly work related to their
areas of nursing. Although manufacturers may sponsor
research related to their products, bias due to implicit
financial interests is an overriding factor when considering the research findings and recommendations.
In itself, a low level of evidence such as level M
(manufacturers’ recommendations) does not mean that
the recommendations are not the current best practices.
Often manufacturers’ recommendations are specific
ways to use the equipment based on internal quality
assurance, for example, a blood filter that is manufactured to last for a certain number of hours or a patient
warmer that is calibrated so that a specific setting warms
the patient to a normal temperature. In addition, many
pieces of equipment used by clinicians have been approved
by the Food and Drug Administration and have practice
recommendations related to the approval process to
ensure patients’ safety. Typically approval requires a
Anurse in a spinal trauma unit recognized that
the incidence of skin breakdown was high.
Patients in the unit were acutely ill and immobile,
making them at increased risk for pressure ulcers.
Fecal incontinence adds to that risk. A new fecal containment device was purchased, and a nurse was
charged with developing a procedure for use of the
device. The nurse and his team of caregivers began to
explore what needed to be done to write the new procedure and disseminate it to the ICU staff members.
The vendor agreed to offer in-service education on the
product, but the guidelines for nursing care extend
beyond the specific practical details of product insertion.
The nurse reviewed the AACN Procedure Manual for
Critical Care33 and the manufacturer’s instructions for use
of the fecal containment device. The evidence found was
rated as level D (expert opinion) and level M (manufacturer’s recommendations). Procedures that are developed
on the basis of evidence gleaned from expert opinion and
manufacturers’ recommendations may be the only information available for new products and practices. The
nurse recognized that publications may be outdated and
that a search of the most current literature for pertinent
research was a priority. He was obligated to do a thorough literature search to verify concurrence among
sources and findings.
The nurse appreciated that the practices might be
fluid and could change over time as clinical use of the
product led to new clinical studies and outcomes analysis. After reviewing all the available recommendations for
the use of the fecal containment device, he decided to
adapt or adopt the procedure from the AACN Procedure
Manual for Critical Care. He wrote the procedure and
included references from the manufacturer’s recommendations, the AACN manual, and other current research.
He was careful to note on the procedure that the levels of
evidence were D and M. He made plans for disseminating
and educating staff about the new procedure. When
exploring the literature on the subject of fecal incontinence
containment, the nurse recognized that the use of this
device would present an opportunity for clinical research
that would add a higher level of evidence to the knowledge base. He made a note to discuss this prospect with
his colleagues and the clinical nurse specialist.
CASE 3
Change in Clinical Practice Based on Expert Opinion and
Manufacturers’ Recommendations
66 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org
With practice alerts, critical care nurses have
evidence-based guidelines and implementation
strategies at their fingertips and know the
strength of the evidence on which the
recommendations were based.
considerable body of research and consensus of recognized experts. Case 3 describes using the AACN levels of
evidence to assess information obtained from expert
opinions or manufacturers’ recommendations.
Summary
The 2011-2013 EBPRWG continued the tradition of
previous workgroups to move research to the patient
bedside. Member of AACN provided feedback about the
AACN levels of evidence published in 2009 that prompted
a revision to further assist clinicians. The AACN rating
system for levels of evidence is illustrated by the evidencebased care pyramid. The purpose of the schematic is to
help bedside nurses determine the strength of evidence
on the basis of the research methods and design. Clinicians must critically evaluate research before attempting
to implement the findings into practice. The clinical relevance of any research must be evaluated as appropriate
for inclusion into practice.
The process for preparing practice alerts has been
standardized so that clinicians can trust the recommendations and put them to immediate use at the bedside.
Typically, practice alerts are reviewed and/or revised
every 3 years, but new research may elicit an immediate
review and revision. Members of the current workgroup
have focused on shifting the use of scientific evidence
from a research or evidence-based practice project to a
practical guide for everyday nursing practice. Each practice alert has current resources for managers and clinicians
to use for education, implementation, and evaluation of
best practices. These resources include PowerPoint presentations, audit tool kits, and access to current literature. To that end, evidence-based patient care becomes a
lifelong approach to clinical decision making to improve
clinical outcomes and includes use of best evidence, clinical expertise, and values of patients and their families.
The goal to implement best evidence to guide clinical
practice is possible for the AACN community. CCN
Now that you’ve read the article, create or contribute to an online discussion
about this topic using eLetters. Just visit www.ccnonline.org and select the article
you want to comment on. In the full-text or PDF view of the article, click
“Responses” in the middle column and then “Submit a response.”
www.ccnonline.org
To learn more about evidence-based practice, read “EvidenceBased Practice Habits: Putting More Sacred Cows Out to Pasture”
by Makic et al in Critical Care Nurse, April 2011;31:38-62. Available
at www.ccnonline.org.
25. Lin SM, Liu CY, Wang CH, et al. The impact of delirium on the survival of mechanically ventilated patients. Crit Care Med. 2004;32(11):
2254-2259 PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.
26. Ouimet S, Kavanagh BP, Gottfried SB, Skrobik Y. Incidence, risk factors
and consequences of ICU delirium. Intensive Care Med. 2007;33(1):66-73.
27. Ely EW, Truman B, Shintani A, et al. Monitoring sedation status over
time in ICU patients: the reliability and validity of the Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS). JAMA. 2003;289(22):2983-2991.
28. Ely EW. Confusion Assessment Method for the ICU: the complete training manual. http://www.mc.vanderbilt.edu/icudelirium/docs/CAM
_ICU_training.pdf. Published 2002. Revised October 2012. Accessed
January 16, 2014.
29. Pandharipande PP, Pun BT, Herr DL, et al. Effect of sedation with
dexmedetomidine vs lorazepam on acute brain dysfunction in mechanically ventilated patients: the MENDS randomized controlled trial.
JAMA. 2007;298(22):2644-2653.
30. Riker RR, Shehabi Y, Bokesch PM, et al; SEDCOM (Safety and Efficacy
of Dexmedetomidine Compared With Midazolam) study group.
Dexmedetomidine vs midazolam for sedation of critically ill patients: a
randomized trial. JAMA. 2009;301(5):489-499.
31. Girard TD, Kress JP, Fuchs BD, et al. Efficacy and safety of a paired sedation and ventilator weaning protocol for mechanically ventilated patients
in intensive care (Awakening and Breathing Controlled trial): a randomised controlled trial. Lancet. 2008;371(9707):126-134.
32. Girard TD, Pandharipande PP, Carson SS, et al; MIND Trial Investigators. Feasibility, efficacy, and safety of antipsychotics for intensive care
unit delirium: the MIND randomized, placebo-controlled trial. Crit
Care Med. 2010;38(2):428-437.
33. Wiengard DL, ed. AACN Procedure Manual for Critical Care. 6th ed. St
Louis, MO; Saunders Elsevier; 2011.
68 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org
Financial Disclosures PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence
None reported.
References
1. Nightingale F. Notes on Nursing: What It Is and What It Is Not. New York,
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2. American Nurses Association. Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice.
2nd ed. Silver Spring, MD: American Nurses Association; 2010.
3. American Nurses Association. Code of Ethics for Nurses With Interpretive
Statements. Washington, DC: American Nurses Association; 2001.
4. American Association of Colleges of Nursing. The Essentials of Baccalaureate Education for Professional Nursing Practice. Rev ed. Washington,
DC: American Association of Colleges of Nursing; 2008. http://www
.aacn.nche.edu/publications/order-form/baccalaureate-essentials.
Accessed January 15, 2014.
5. Polit DF, Beck CT. Resource Manual for Nursing Research: Generating and
Assessing Evidence for Nursing Practice. 9th ed. Philadelphia, PA:
Williams & Wilkins; 2012.
6. Dawes M, Davies P, Gray A, Mant J, Seers K, Snowball R. Evidence-Based
Practice: A Primer for Health Care Professionals. 2nd ed. Philadelphia, PA:
Elsevier; 2005.
7. Pravikoff DS, Tanner AB, Pierce ST. Readiness of US nurses for evidencebased practice. Am J Nurs. 2005;105(9):40-51.
8. Thiel L, Ghosh Y. Determining registered nurses’ readiness for evidencebased practice. Worldviews Evid Based Nurs. 2008;5(4):182-192.
9. Armola RR, Bourgault AM, Halm MA, et al; 2008-2009 Evidence-Based
Practice Resource Work Group of the American Association of CriticalCare Nurses. Upgrading the American Association of Critical-Care
Nurses’ evidence-leveling hierarchy. Am J Crit Care. 2009;18(5):405-409.
10. Melnyk BM, Fineout-Overholt, E. Evidence-Based Practice in Nursing and
Healthcare: A Guide to Best Practice. 2nd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott
Williams & Wilkins; 2011.
11. Gugiu PC, Gugiu MR. A critical appraisal of standard guidelines for
grading levels of evidence. Eval Health Prof. 2010;33(3):233-255.
doi:10.1177/0163278710373980.
12. Evans D. Hierarchy of evidence: a framework for ranking evidence evaluating healthcare interventions. J Clin Nurs. 2003;12(1):77-84.
13. Cesario S, Morin K, Santa-Donato A. Evaluating the level of evidence of
qualitative research. J Obstet Gynecol Neonatal Nurs. 2002;31(6):708-714.
14. Armola RR, Bourgault AM, Halm MA, et al. AACN levels of evidence:
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Heart Association clinical practice guidelines, I: where do they come
from? Circulation. 2003;107(23):2979-2986.
16. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. AACN practice alerts. http://
www.aacn.org/WD/Practice/Content/practicealerts.content?menu
=Practice. Accessed January 17, 2014.
17. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Practice alert: venous
thromboembolism prevention. http://www.aacn.org/wd/practice
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April 2010. Accessed January 17, 2014.
18. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Practice alert: family
presence: visitation in the adult ICU. http://www.aacn.org/wd/practice/content/practicealerts/family-visitation-icu-practice-alert.pcms?
menu=practice. Published November 2011. Accessed January 17, 2014.
19. Liberati A, Altman DG, Tetzlaff J, et al. The PRISMA statement for
reporting systematic reviews and meta-analyses of studies that evaluate
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20. Moher D, Liberati A, Tetzlaff J, Altman DG; PRISMA Group. Preferred
reporting items for systematic reviews and meta-analyses: the PRISMA
statement. J Clin Epidemiol. 2009;62(10):1006-1012.
21. Moher D, Simera I, Schulz KF, Hoey J, Altman DG. Helping editors,
peer reviewers and authors improve the clarity, completeness and transparency of reporting health research. BMC Med. 2008;6:13.
doi:10.1186/1741-7015-6-13.
22. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. AACN practice alert:
delirium assessment and management. http://www.aacn.org/WD
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November 2011. Accessed January 16, 2014.
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intensive care unit on hospital length of stay. Intensive Care Med. 2001;
27(12):1892-1900.
24. Ely EW, Shintani A, Truman B, et al. Delirium as a predictor of mortality in mechanically ventilated patients in the intensive care unit. JAMA.
2004;291(14):1753-1762.
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without the copyright holder’s express written permission. However, users may print,
download, or email articles for individual use. PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Paper.

Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion

Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion

Candidiasis Cutaneous

Candidiasis cutaneous is an infection caused by candida. The organism causes topically infections, but serious disease complications can result from the infection. Common sites of the infection include: oral thrush, infant diaper dermatitis, vaginal infections, groin, toes, fingers, axillae, and perianal area (Dunphy, Winland-Brown, Thomas, & Carter, 2015). Candida infection can be systemic infecting the lungs and gastrointestinal tract. Risk factors related to severe complications are secondary to immunocompromised patients following major surgery, immunocompromised patients, and infants.

Incidence and Prevalence

Women are at greater risk for development of vaginal candidiasis. Vaginal candidiasis often affects women after antibiotic therapy because the medications disrupt normal flora. The most common type of infectious agent is candida albicans (Ferri, 2018). Neonates and elderly are at higher risk of the infection. Patients with obesity, diabetes, receiving glucocorticoids, maceration have a higher risk of infection (Wolff, Johnson, Saaverdra, & Roh, 2017). Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

Pathophysiology

Cutaneous candidiasis occurs in moist areas of the skin. The fungal infection has two subgroups: cutaneous and chronic (Ferri, 2018). Physical presentation of cutaneous presents with areas of erythema, inflammation and shiny lesions around the perimeter of the erythema. Microscopic presentation of lesions shows yeast forms and sausage-looking forms (Wolff et al., 2017). Areas of the skin affected by cutaneous candidiasis form on the vagina, penile skin, overlapping skin folds, abdomen, nails, oral cavity, axillae, buttocks, and perianal area.

Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion Chronic candidiasis is generally seen in hospitalized patients (Ferri, 2018). Gram stains of samples from the respiratory and gastrointestinal tract shows yeast cell formation. Areas of samples for chronic candidiasis from an endoscopy or lung biopsy will show cytokine secretion of T-cell subtypes (Campois et al., 2015).

Physical Assessment

            Physical assessment of cutaneous candidiasis presenting on the skin reveals white, flaky patches with surrounding inflammation and erythema Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion. The patient may complain the skin is itchy with pain from the inflammation.

Physical assessment of chronic candidiasis depends on the site of infection. Oral thrush will present with inflammation to the oral membrane with large white patches to the tongue and surrounding membranes. Patients may complain of burning, dry mouth, pain and dysphagia (Ferri, 2018). Diagnostic testing for chronic candidiasis includes cultures for a sputum sample and upper endoscopy with or without a sample.

Evidence-Based Treatment

Treatment for cutaneous candidiasis includes topical antifungal ointment or powder depending on the site of infection. Antifungal medications based on clinical guidelines for treatment are clotrimazole, econazole, and miconazole (Ferri, 2018). Patients with candidiasis of the finger/toenails will present with dystrophic nails with surrounding nail bed erythema with possible nail bed loss. Oral or topical antifungals are indicated depending on the severity of infection in the nail/toe beds. Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

Treatment for chronic and reoccurring candidiasis is with use of oral antifungals. Nystatin swish and swallow is used in treatment of oral thrush. Many candidiasis responds to fluconazole single dose in conjunction with a topical antifungal ointment (Ferri, 2018). High doses of fluconazole are indicated in patients with reoccurring infection by oral of intravenous route Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

Patient Education

Patients with topical infections should be educated to keep the area clean and dry for prevention and during treatment for candidiasis. Patients should be educated to complete all medications as instructed and to follow-up with provider in two weeks or before if symptoms worsen. Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

References

Camporis, T. G., Zucoloto, A. Z., Araujo, E. J., Svidizinski, T. I., Alemeida, R. S., Quirino, F. S.,

Haranp, R. M., & Felipe, I. (2015). Immunological and histopathological characterization

of cutaneous candidiasis. Journal of Medical Microbiology, 64, 810-817. doi: 10.1099/

jmm0.000095.

Dunphy, L. M., Winland-Brown, J. E., Porter, B. O. & Thomas, D. J. (2015) Primary Care: The

art and science of advanced practice nursing. Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis Company.

Ferri, F. F. (2018). Ferri’s Clinical Advisor 2018: 5 Books in 1. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier.

Wolff, K., Johnson, R. A., Saavedra, A. P., & Roh, E. K. (2017). Fitzpatrick’s Color Atlas and

Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology. United States of America: McGraw Hill Education. Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

MN568 Headaches Sample Essay

MN568 Headaches Sample Essay

Headaches

Headaches are classified as primary and secondary. Primary headaches include migraine, tension-type, cluster, and other such as sinus-related or hormonal. Secondary headaches are red flags for trauma, metabolic, neurological or substance withdrawal (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). Secondary headaches can be emergent because of intracranial pressure, infection, or disturbance of homeostasis (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). Sudden onset of headaches and the patient describing the headache as “the worst headache they have ever had” require immediate attention for potential life-threatening causes such as subarachnoid hemorrhage, post lumbar puncture dissection or TIA’s (Dunphy, Windland-Brown, Porter, & Thomas, 2015). MN568 Headaches Sample Essay

Pathophysiology

The pathophysiology of headaches is poorly understood. Migraine headaches are believed to be caused by a neurological dysfunction with involvement of the cranial nerves (Ferri, 2018). Not every patient with migraine headaches have been found to also have a neurological dysfunction. Migraine headaches are also believed to have a genetic disposition with an instability of the nervous system; specifically, with serotonin and neurotransmitters (Diener, Holle, Solbach, & Charly, 2016). Migraine headaches are often debilitating to patients. Patients with migraine headaches can experience photophobia, nausea, vomiting and an aura.

Patients with cluster headaches are believed to have an overactive parasympathetic nervous system (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). The headache causes mild-moderate pain and pressure. Hainer and Matheson (2013) describe tension headaches as pericranial myofascial tissues as the likely cause of these headaches.

Cluster headaches are commonly rare and involve brief episodes of severe pain that is unilateral and disturbance of routine activities of daily living. The headache involves a short duration of severe pain. Dunphy et al. (2015) describe triggers of these painful headaches caused by hypersensitized ophthalmic nerve (Dunphy et al., 2015).

Episodic

Cluster headaches are episodic and short duration. MN568 Headaches Essay. The pain is severe and often does not last longer than an hour. The headaches are often misdiagnosed within one year of the first episode (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). The pain of these headaches is deep and may involve the eyes and nose. The patient may experience tearing or nasal congestion MN568 Headaches Sample Essay.

Acute

Acute headaches are an onset of a severe headache and can be classified as a red flag. Red flag headaches or primary headaches present related to an emergent underlying condition. This type of headaches is often described as the worst headache the patient has ever had MN568 Headaches Essay. A patient who reports this type of headache, especially in the age group of fifty and older are red flags for intracranial hemorrhage, hypertensive emergencies, or potential carotid dissections (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). Acute headaches could also be caused by meningitis, head trauma, or cancerous tumors MN568 Headaches Sample Essay.

 

Chronic

Chronic headaches are daily tension-type headaches or migraine headaches. The headaches can be hormonal related in nature. Common trigger of a migraine headache may include: hormones such as low estrogen, disturbance in sleep cycle, food/drink agents such as caffeine, artificial sweeteners, processed or canned foods (Dunphy et al., 2015).

Physical Assessment

The nurse practitioner can assist in the determination of an old versus new headache by questioning the patient of the duration and frequency of the headache. Hainer and Matheson (2013) describe criteria of duration and frequency of primary headaches as a migraine is a headache that last of four to seventy-two hours, a cluster headache is brief with a fifteen to one hundred eighty-minute episode that occur numerous with a period of relapse (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). The nurse practitioner should ask specific questioning of duration and frequency of the patients headache for subjective data collection MN568 Headaches Essay.

Hainer and Matheson (2013) describe subjective data that would be a red flag symptom includes: complaints of a sudden severe headache, headache triggers with exertion or cough, neurological symptoms, new onset of headache during or after pregnancy, and complaints of neck stiffness (Hainer & Matheson, 2013).

The collection of an open-ended history and focused questions will assist the nurse practitioner in determining if the headache is primary or secondary. If the headache is primary focused questions will lead diagnostics of a migraine, tension, cluster or other headache MN568 Headaches Essay. A physical assessment with concentration on the neurological system and laboratory tests are essential before a final diagnosis. The physical exam should include assessment of the neurological system and cranial nerves II-X An assessment of the patient’s head and neck in attempts to mimic the pain is important. The physical assessment should be focused to alleviate muscular and skeletal disorders.

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It is important for the nurse practitioner to obtain vital subjective data from the patient and complete a thorough physical assessment to distinguish between benign and headaches that require urgent attention.

Red flags through patient data collection and physical assessment that require urgent attention include complaints of a sudden onset of a severe headache, papilledema, altered mental status, high fever, muscle rigidity, nuchal rigidity, and symptoms of a CVA, or TIA (Dunphy et al., 2015).

Evidence-Based Treatment Plan

Diagnostic testing for a definite diagnosis should include a comprehensive blood panel, with electrolytes. Consideration should be taken to check the female patient’s hormone level, thyroid levels and urinalysis to rule out infection. The patient should have a computed tomography (CT) scan with or without contrast completed to the brain to rule out any abnormalities and diagnosis of secondary headaches, or a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

Secondary headaches are treated mainly with over-the-counter analgesics. Evidence-based treatment for non-responsive conservative and over-the-counter treatment supports six classifications of medications: beta blockers, antidepressants, calcium channel blockers, antiepileptic, anticonvulsants, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (Ferri, 2018). MN568 Headaches Sample Essay

 

Patient Education

            Management of headaches is patient-centered. Headaches can be managed with drug therapy. Patient education should include the proper use of the drug therapy and over-the-counter analgesics. Patients should be encouraged to participate in stress relieving activities such as meditation or physical activity that does not aggravate a headache. Complementary therapy such as acupuncture, herbal therapy, and plenty of sleep should be encouraged by the nurse practitioner (Dunphy et al., 2015). MN568 Headaches Essay. The nurse practitioner should encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids, and to eat a healthy diet rich in vitamin C foods.

Discussion

Headache management should always be closely monitored and follow-up from the nurse practitioner is essential. Treatment plans should be closely monitored for the effectiveness of drug therapy, and potential referral to a specialist for the management of the headaches. MN568 Headaches Essay.

 

References

Diener, H. C., Holle, D., Solbach, K., & Charly, G. (2016). Medication-overuse headache: risk

factors, pathophysiology, and management. Nature Reviews: Neurology, 12(10), 575-

Dunphy, L. M., Winland-Brown, J. E., Porter, B. O. & Thomas, D. J. (2015) Primary Care: The

Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing. Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis Company.

Ferri, F. (2018). Ferri’s Clinical Advisor 2018: 5 books in 1. Philadelphia, PA:  Elsevier.

Hanier, B. L., & Matheson, E. M. (2013). Approach to Acute Headaches in Adults. American

Family Physician, 15(87), 682-687. MN568 Headaches Sample Essay

MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Sample

MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Sample

MN566 NP I – Introduction to Primary Care for the Nurse Practitioner

Scope of Practice

The Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) Consensus Model standardizes each aspect of the regulatory process for advanced practice registered nurses. MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example By doing this it increases the state to state mobility for practicing APRNs, the ability to provide needed care will be increased nationwide (Brassard, 2014).  The American Nurses Association has pushed this initiative in order to advance the scope of practice and change licensure laws to ensure unrestricted practice authority for advanced practice registered nurses across the United States MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Sample.

At this present time only twenty-three states and the District of Columbia have granted full practice authority to advanced practice registered nurses. Granting full practice authority to advanced practice registered nurses would “promote safety and contribute to the protection of the public and provision of quality care” (Burke, Richardson & Smith, 2017).  Holtschneider (2016) pointed out that practitioners are educators, mentors, leaders, researchers, and advocates. MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.

How My Practice is Affected

In order to provide quality, cost effective care to patients, advanced practice registered nurses must be able to practice to the full extent of their education and skills set in every state across the nation (American Nurses Association, n.d.).  Unfortunately, in my home state of Texas, we are forced to work under restrictions as outlined in Tex. Admin. Code §22-11-221.13 (Texas Scope, 2018).  Texas’ state practice and licensure laws require advanced practice nurses to work under the supervision on a physician for the entirety of their careers (AANP, 2018).  This restrictive environment is due in great part to the funding by physician’s groups who are intent on maintaining a physician controlled medical environment MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.

Granting full practice authority would change the entire dynamic of health care in the state of Texas and prevent qualified advanced practice registered nurses from pursue careers in other states.   My career will be greatly hampered by these unjust restrictions.  Not only will I be forced to work under physician doing the same work, but I will be forced to accept a significantly lower reimbursement from insurances MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Sample.

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Unless our state legislators wake up and realize that they must remove the restrictions to our practice authority I plan on relocating to another state.  This would be one of the most difficult decisions that I have ever been forced to make in my life.  It would mean leaving all my family and friends. MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.

What My Future Holds.

It was not until I began working towards my master’s degree that I learned about practice restrictions and how it would hamper my future clinical practice.  This knowledge has motivated me to become involved in the legislative process to help promote change.  In order to do that we must make it a priority to become fully informed about legislative candidates at all levels of government and their position on licensure restrictions (Newland, 2016).

Soon my career will lead me to another state unless Texas removes the practice restrictions on advanced nurse practitioners.  Regardless of where my path leads, I will be an active participant in the legislative process to help ensure changes that benefit our profession are made.  Without nurses in numbers fighting for our rights, changes will not come. MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.

Conclusion

In a country where the primary care physician shortage is becoming increasingly worse each year, to restrict the practice authority of advanced practice registered nurses is detrimental the wellbeing of the nation.  Utilizing APRNs with unrestricted practice authority as primary care health care providers would ensure that more people would have access to affordable, quality care MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.  According to Rudner Lugo (2016), nurses will have to work together utilizing grass-root efforts to gain political support from legislators to change the licensure restrictions for APRNs.  If these restrictions are not lifted, the exodus of APRNs to unrestricted states will continue MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Sample.

References

AANP. (2018). State Practice Environment. Retrieved from https://www.aanp.org/advocacy/state/state-practice-environment

American Nurses Association. (n.d.). Nursing Scope of Practice. Retrieved from https://www.nursingworld.org/practice-policy/scope-of-practice/

Brassard, A. (2014). Overview and Summary: APRN Roles: Opportunities and Challenges for Practice and Education. Online Journal of Issues in Nursing, 19(2), 10. https://doi.org/10.3912/OJIN.Vol19No02ManOS

Burke, K. G., Richardson, C., & Smith, B. A. (2017). Implementing Nursing Professional Development. Journal for Nurses in Professional Development, 33(5), 269-271. doi:10.1097/nnd.0000000000000375

Holtschneider, M. E. (2016). Implementing the Nursing Professional Development Practitioner Scope and Standards of Practice 2016 Revisions. Journal for Nurses in Professional Development, 32(5), 269–270. https://doi.org/10.1097/NND.0000000000000285

Newland, J. (2016). Editor’s Memo. The 28th Annual APRN Legislative Update beyond the 50 states. Nurse Practitioner, 41(1), 8. doi:10.1097/01.npr.0000475960.38934.73

Rudner Lugo, N. (2016). Full Practice Authority for Advanced Practice Registered Nurses is a Gender Issue. OJIN, 21(2). doi:10.3912/OJIN.Vol21No02PPT54

Texas Scope of Practice Policy – State Profile. (2018). Retrieved from http://scopeofpracticepolicy.org/states/tx/# MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Sample

Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study Paper

Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study Paper

MN551: Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Across the Life Span

Case Study 5: Disorders of Renal Function

Case study number five is focused on a forty-four-year-old man named Fred.  Fred stays healthy and fit by working outside.  After working outside one particularly warm summer day, he returned home only to begin experiencing lower back discomfort and unexplained nausea later that evening.  Having lost his appetite due to the nausea and unable to enjoy the dinner that his wife had prepared, he decided to go to bed early Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study Paper.

Later that night his symptoms worsened.  He began complaining of excruciating stomach, back and groin pain.  The pain would come in waves that would be followed by diaphoresis and vomiting.  Once his pain eased, his wife rushed him to the hospital to be evaluated. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

After being evaluated and having abdominal scans, emergency room physicians diagnosed him with renal calculi in the right ureter or right urolithiasis.  With a diagnosis the hospital physicians and staff can work with Fred and his wife on a plan of care and begin treatment.  Based on medical literature it is critical that renal disorders are properly diagnosed and treated to prevent further renal injury.

Mechanism of Stone Formation in the Kidney.

There are four different types of kidney stones: calcium, uric acid, struvite, and cystine.  The precise mechanism of forming kidney stones or urolithiasis is not completely understood despite significant research (Evan, Worcester, Coe, Williams & Lingeman, 2015).  Research has shown that a nidus is required along with a urinary environment conducive to the crystallization of components found in kidney stones (Grossman & Porth, 2014).

It has been hypothesized that the kidneys become supersaturated with crystalline liquid structures that they cannot break down.   These crystalline liquid structures begin to precipitate together rapidly to form solid particles. The solid particles begin binding together and arrange into a crystal pattern in a process known as crystal nucleation (Jena, Panigrahi & Dey, 2016).  Varying in size and shape, the crystals adhere to the renal tubular epithelial cells (Chaiyarit & Thongboonkerd, 2017).  Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study  Then the crystals begin to form an adhesive agglomeration within the renal tubules.  It is at this point that the kidney stone causes a restriction or blockage of the renal tubules Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study Paper.

Role of Citrate in the Kidneys.

Citrate is a tricarboxylic acid that is a natural byproduct of the citric acid cycle in renal cells (Grossman & Porth, 2014).  Citrate makes the renal environment unfavorable to stone formation by reducing the supersaturation and increasing the pH of urine (Kaygisiz, 2017).  This effectively inhibits the crystallization of calcium salts thus reducing to probability of forming calcium oxalate stones.

Studies have noted that individuals with a lower urinary citrate excretion or hypocitraturia have higher incidences of kidney stone formation (Coe, Worcester & Evan, 2016).  It has also been shown that citrate therapy inhibits the growth and reduces the reoccurrence of new stone formation in the kidneys (Phillips, Hanchanale, Myatt, Somani, Nabi & Biyani, 2015).  The most effective way to prevent the formation of kidney stones is to maintain the acid-base balance within the bladder. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

Calcium Supplements and Calcium Oxalate Stones.

According to Grossman and Porth (2014), seventy-five to eighty percent of kidney stones are calcium stones.   A differential diagnosis of hypercalciuria is a common indicator of calcium kidney stones.  Patients who have an excessive amount of calcium excreted through the urine may also have a supersaturation of urinary calcium salts (Sorensen, 2014).

Patients are completely dependent on their dietary intake for the absorption of calcium.  If their intake is too low, then there can be in increase of urinary oxalate.  Calcium supplementation helps to bind oxalate in the intestine and effectively reduce its absorption (Grossman & Porth, 2014). Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

Hydronephrosis.

Swelling in one or both kidneys resulting from a buildup of urine is hydronephrosis.  This condition can lead to kidney damage and/or failure if not treated.  The amount of damage depends on duration, severity and location of the obstruction (Grossman & Porth, 2014).

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One cause for this condition is an obstruction in the ureters preventing the outflow of urine to the bladder.  A second cause of this condition occurs when urine in the bladder refluxes into the kidney causing an enlargement of the renal pelvis (Hydronephrosis, 2017).  Both causes result in renal injury but diagnosed and treated early can reverse the damage.

Relating to this case study the probable location of the kidney stone related blockage would be the ureteropelvic junction.  Fred exhibited symptoms consistent with hydronephrosis which included complaints of pain in his back, abdomen and groin.  He also was suffering from nausea and vomiting. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

Back Pressure in the Kidneys.

For this paper the focus of case study number five is on an obstruction caused by a kidney stone.  Back pressure occurs in the kidneys because of hydronephrosis caused by an obstruction, or reflux.  This condition causes a back or buildup of pressure in the kidneys.  If the condition persists, the kidneys will begin to suffer damage or nephropathy.

Progressive atrophy and damage of the kidney is caused by the dilation of the renal pelvis and calices which occurs because of the continued glomerular filtration.  The back pressure continues to build because of this ongoing filtration and the kidney’s inability to release the urine due to the blockage.  Renal vasculature becomes compressed when the increased pressure in the renal pelvis is forced back through the kidney’s collecting ducts (Grossman & Porth, 2014).

This back pressure causes a restriction in blood flow to the kidneys causing ischemic damage and intrarenal pelvic pressure which combined result in mechanical damage to the nephrons.  This causes the progressive destruction of nephrons.  Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study. Remaining nephrons work to compensate by increasing their function until the assault is halted or the remaining nephrons are destroyed.  According to Grossman and Porth (2014, pg. 1089), “in advanced cases the kidneys can become thin walled cystic structures with parenchymal atrophy, total obliteration of the pyramids and thinning of the cortex.” Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study Paper

Conclusion.

In case study number five, it is clear through medical literature and research that time is of the essence when diagnosing and treating with renal disorders.  In this case study, Fred had worked outside in the heat all day.  His early symptoms could have easily been mistaken for exhaustion, pulling a back muscle or dehydration.

Patients who delay seeking help are at greater risk for renal injury that could result in permanent damage and renal failure.  One specific condition that can devastate a patient’s renal health if left untreated is hydronephrosis.  The damage from this condition can destroy the kidney’s nephrons and lead to renal failure. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

Despite the abundance of research into the formation of renal stone formation, there is still more to be learned.  Health care providers should educate patients about the causes, signs and symptoms of kidney stones.  As evidenced by medical literature, it is clear that early diagnosis and treatment can potentially slow, stop and reverse renal injury.

References

Chaiyarit, S., & Thongboonkerd, V. (2017). Defining and Systematic Analyses of Aggregation Indices to Evaluate Degree of Calcium Oxalate Crystal Aggregation. Frontiers in Chemistry, 5, 113. http://doi.org/10.3389/fchem.2017.00113

Coe, F. L., Worcester, E. M., & Evan, A. P. (2016). Idiopathic hypercalciuria and formation of calcium renal stones. Nature Reviews Nephrology, 12(9), 519-533. doi:10.1038/nrneph.2016.101

Evan, A. P., Worcester, E. M., Coe, F. L., Williams, J., & Lingeman, J. E. (2015). Mechanisms of Human Kidney Stone Formation. Urolithiasis, 43(0 1), 19–32. http://doi.org/10.1007/s00240-014-0701-0

Grossman, S. C., & Porth, C. (2014). Porth’s pathophysiology: Concepts of altered health states (9th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.

Hydronephrosis. (2017, February 03). Retrieved from https://www.kidney.org/atoz/content/hydronephrosis

Jena, S. C., Panigrahi, P. N., & Dey, S. (2016). Urolithiasis: Critical Analysis of Mechanism of Renal Stone Formation and Use of Medicinal Plants as Antiurolithiatic Agents. Asian Journal of Animal and Veterinary Advances, 11(1), 9-16. doi:10.3923/ajava.2016.9.16 Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study

Kaygısız, O. (2017). Metaphylaxis in Pediatric Urinary Stone Disease. Updates and Advances in Nephrolithiasis – Pathophysiology, Genetics, and Treatment Modalities. doi:10.5772/intechopen.69982

Phillips, R., Hanchanale, V. S., Myatt, A., Somani, B., Nabi, G., & Biyani, C. S. (2015). Citrate salts for preventing and treating calcium containing kidney stones in adults. Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews. doi:10.1002/14651858.cd010057.pub2

Sorensen, M. D. (2014). Calcium intake and urinary stone disease. Translational Andrology and Urology, 3(3), 235–240. http://doi.org/10.3978/j.issn.2223-4683.2014.06.05

Last Name, F. M. (Year). Article Title. Journal Title, Pages From – To.

Last Name, F. M. (Year). Book Title. City Name: Publisher Name Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study Paper.

MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

Unit 5

Your quiz has been submitted successfully.

Subsection

Question 1 1 / 1 point

Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level IV evidence?

Question options:

Single descriptive or qualitative study
Opinion of authorities and expert committees
Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
Well-designed case Control or Cohort Study Level
Question 2 MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz 1 / 1 point

It is always important to consider the pathological process that could be causing the patients problems. Choose all that should be considered when creating your differential list using a mnemonic MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz.

Question options:

Inflammatory
Neoplastic
toxic or metabolic
infectious
congenital
traumatic
Question 3 0 / 1 point

Choose all that should be considered when ordering a diagnostic test.

Question options:

patients request for test to be done
cost
sensitivity and specificity of the test
convenience of test
Will the outcome of the test change your plan of care
diagnosis by exclusion
Question 4 MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz 1 / 1 point

Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level I evidence?

Question options:

Single, well-designed randomized clinical trial
Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies
Question 5 1 / 1 point

The Goals of Diagnostic Reasoning is to:(choose all that apply)

Question options:

Solve a problem
establish a relationship with your patient
screen for disease and illness
promote healthy lifestyles
support research
Question 6 1 / 1 point

Using mnemonics for gathering a health history can be helpful when trying to analyse the symptoms presented and create a differential list.Which mnemonic will give you the most comprehensive approach to collecting your history?

Question options:

OLDCARS
COLDSPA
MEDLIST
OLDCARTS
Question 7 1 / 1 point

A 37 year old man that was diagnosed with cluster headaches and takes high doses of aspirin.
Indicate the appropriate course of action :

Question options:

head CT
head MRI C.
neither for the following patient.
All of the above
Question 8 1 / 1 point

Generalized patterns of nursing care are represented in The Circle of Caring Model as:(choose all that apply)

Question options:

self care
Patience
listening
courage
Authentic presence
advocacy
knowing
commitment
Question 9 1 / 1 point

Choose all the following that are essential in developing clinical practice guidelines:

Question options:

Identification of A topic
Enlist and expert panal
Review of literature ‘D. Rate evidence
Draft a proposal
External review of draft
Revised draft based on recommendations
Question 10 1 / 1 point

Applying evidence at the point of care requires:

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Question options: MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

Readily available evidence-based resources
Ability to review research literature
Single articles in journals
Current textbooks
Question 11 0 / 1 point

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz.
Which of the following are parts of evidence-based practice?

Question options:

Clinician
Patient
Evidence
All of the above
Question 12 0 / 1 point

Different kinds of thinking and learning also include the Affective Domain. This model described by Krathwohl (1964), is :

Question options:

Complex to include conceptual knowledge
A metacognitive model
Based on an organized hierarchy
Based on an individual’s commitment to living and valuing
Question 13 1 / 1 point

When evaluating a patient with a an acute headache all of the following observations would indicate the absence of a more serious underlying condition except:

Question options:

Onset of headache with exertion, coughing or sneezing
History of previous headaches
Supple neck
normal neurological examination result.
Question 14 1 / 1 point

What are the questions you should ask yourself before using clinical guidelines in your practice? All are correct except (mark the ones that apply)

Question options:

How strong are the recommendations
Are the guidelines applicable to my patients
Can I get reimbursed for using these guidelines
Are the guidelines clinically important
Are these guidelines from a reliable source
How old are these guidelines
Question 15 1 / 1 point

The Circle of Caring Model is a new and more contemporary approach to medicine. Choose the characteristics that best describe this model of care in the primary care setting. MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz.

Question options:

AIl includes both traditional nursing as well as traditional medical practice
It is a transformative model
It considers both assessment and patient outcomes
It is a patient centered model
All of the Above
Question 16 1 / 1 point

Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level V evidence?

Question options:

Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies
Single descriptive or qualitative study
Question 17 1 / 1 point

Understanding other factors that can be causing the patients problems include:. Choose all that should be considered

Question options:

Demographics
Age
Gender
weight
medications
education
Question 18 1 / 1 point MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

The Circle of Caring Model has grown out of and is rooted in the assumption that caring is the central concept in nursing and is uniquely known and expressed in nursing.

Question options:

True
False
Question 19 1 / 1 point

Bloom’s (1956) taxonomies of learning includes all of the following except:

Question options:

the cognitive domain
the communication and leadership domain
the affective domain
psychomotor domain
Question 20 1 / 1 point

Diagnostic test should be the deciding factor when making your final diagnosis.

MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz Question options:

True
False
Question 21 1 / 1 point

Practice Standards are designed to be flexible and can be tailored to be used in any medical arena.

Question options:

True
False
Question 22 1 / 1 point

Indicators that a headache can be the presenting symptom of a serious illness and may require neuroimaging include all the following except:

Question options:

Headaches that occur periodically in clusters
Increase frequency and severity of headaches
Headaches causing confusion, dizziness and or lack of coordination.
Headaches causing you to wake at night.
Question 23 1 / 1 point

Practice guidelines are designed to:

Question options:

Be inflexible
Be utilized in every circumstance
Provide a reference point for decision making
Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession
Question 24 1 / 1 point

Nursing research should be utilized by:

MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz Question options: MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

Nurses at the bedside
Advanced practice nurses
Nurse researchers
Nurses at all levels of practice
Question 25 1 / 1 point

Clinicians who use clinical guidelines are responsible for reviewing their usefulness in their practice.

Question options:

True
False
Attempt Score:

22 / 25 – 88 %

Overall Grade (highest attempt):

22 / 25 – 88 %

 

MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

DN713: Epidemiology and Social Determinants of Population Health

DN713: Epidemiology and Social Determinants of Population Health

This course focuses on comprehending, synthesizing, and applying emerging scientific knowledge specific to clinical prevention and population health. You will synthesize trends among epidemiologic, biostatistical, and environmental data to derive solutions to tenacious or new health care problems based on existing health data sets and the scientific literature. Social determinants of health in the processes of conducting risk assessment, intervention development and implementation, health care delivery planning, and evaluation will be considered. Models of clinical prevention and population health care delivery will be evaluated.

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This course requires 20 supervised practice hours focused on population health. DN713: Epidemiology and Social Determinants of Population Health DN713: Epidemiology and Social Determinants of Population Health