Write a paper (2,000-2,500 words) in which you apply the concepts of epidemiology and nursing research to a communicable disease. Refer to “Communicable Disease Chain,” “Chain of Infection,” and the CDC website for assistance completing this assignment.

Communicable Disease Selection

Choose one communicable disease from the following list:

1. Chickenpox
2. Tuberculosis
3. Influenza
4. Mononucleosis
5. Hepatitis B
6. HIV
7. Ebola
8. Measles
9. Polio
10. Influenza Epidemiology and Communicable Disease

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Epidemiology Paper Requirements

Address the following:

1. Describe the communicable disease (causes, symptoms, mode of transmission, complications, treatment) and the demographic of interest (mortality, morbidity, incidence, and prevalence). Is this a reportable disease? If so, provide details about reporting time, whom to report to, etc.
2. Describe the determinants of health and explain how those factors contribute to the development of this disease.
3. Discuss the epidemiologic triangle as it relates to the communicable disease you have selected. Include the host factors, agent factors (presence or absence), and environmental factors. (The textbook describes each element of the epidemiologic triangle). Are there any special considerations or notifications for the community, schools, or general population?
4. Explain the role of the community health nurse (case finding, reporting, data collecting, data analysis, and follow-up).
5. Identify at least one national agency or organization that addresses the communicable disease chosen and describe how the organization(s) contributes to resolving or reducing the impact of disease.
6. Discuss a global implication of the disease. How is this addressed in other countries or cultures? Is this disease endemic to a particular area? Provide an example.

A minimum of three peer-reviewed or professional references is required.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. 

 Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

NRS427V-RS-CommunicableDiseaseChain.doc Epidemiology and Communicable Disease

Assignment Requirements

Imagine that you are a sophomore at Premier College. Over the past few months, you have not been well due to increased amounts of academic pressure and found yourself unable to concentrate in class or sleep well at night. You went to the student medical center for evaluation and, after consulting with the staff doctor, you were issued a prescription for the treatment of depression. FACILITATING EASIER ACCESS TO CONSUMERS COMPLAINTS AND ENFORCEMENT

A few days later, one of your professors tells you that he too has had to take medicine for depression in the past. You ask him how he knew about your situation, and he replied that all student medical records are available to every instructor and staff member at Premier College. Hearing this, you feel that your privacy rights have been violated.

That afternoon you research privacy rights on the Internet and learn that filing a HIPAA privacy complaint to the OCR had been a tedious process before July 2009. On July 27, 2009, the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) delegated to the Director of OCR the authority to administer and enforce the HIPAA Security Rule.

This action improved HHS’ ability to protect individuals’ health information by combining the authority for administration and enforcement of federal standards for health information privacy and security. Those standards are outlined in the HIPAA legislation. With the new regulation, the process of filing a privacy complaint has become simpler and more effective.

Then you research the steps involved with filing a privacy complaint with the OCR (http://www.hhs.gov/ocr/privacy/hipaa/complaints/index.html), download the Health Information Privacy Complaint form at (http://www.hhs.gov/sites/default/files/ocr/privacy/hipaa/complaints/hipcomplaintform.pdf), and complete the form. While working on the form, you realize some sections are critical to your case and must be addressed carefully.

You decide to write about your experience in a paper for your Legal Issues in Information Security class. For this assignment: FACILITATING EASIER ACCESS TO CONSUMERS COMPLAINTS AND ENFORCEMENT

1.     Identify the early iterations of the HIPAA act and how the law has been modified to facilitate easier access to consumer complaints and enforcement.

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2.     Describe the overall process of submitting a health information privacy complaint to the OCR.

3.     Identify specific sections of the complaint form that need critical attention while completing the form.

4.     Analyze a few situations that can occur if the critical sections are not well identified.

5.     Draft a brief summary, collating all your findings.

Required Resources

·       Access to the Internet

·       http://www.hhs.gov/ocr/privacy/hipaa/complaints/index.html

·      http://www.hhs.gov/sites/default/files/ocr/privacy/hipaa/complaints/hipcomplaintform.pdf

Submission Requirements

§  Format: Microsoft Word

§  Font: Arial 10-point size, Double-space

§  Citation Style: APA

§  Length: No more than 500 words

Evaluation Criteria and Rubric

1.     Did the student identify early iterations of the HIPAA act and how the law has been modified to facilitate easier access to consumer complaints and enforcement?

2.     Did the student identify specific sections of the form that need critical attention while filing the complaint?

Did the student analyze the situations that one gets into if the critical sections are not well identified? FACILITATING EASIER ACCESS TO CONSUMERS COMPLAINTS AND ENFORCEMENT

Question 1 

A 70-year-old woman has received a diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) after a clinical investigation sparked by the presence of leukocytosis in her routine blood work. What clinical course should her care provider tell her to expect? 

Answers: 

A. “It’s likely that this will give you chronic fatigue and malaise for the rest of your life, but that will probably be the extent of your symptoms.” 

B. “Unfortunately, your leukemia will likely enter a crisis mode within a few weeks if we don’t treat it immediately.” 

C. “You could remain the chronic stage of CML for several years before it accelerates and culminates in a crisis.” 

D. “You can expect your blood results, fatigue, and susceptibility to infection to gradually worsen over a few years.” 

Question 2 

Following an injury resulting in a small cut from a knife, the first cells to go to the area of the cut would be the 

Answers: 

A. erythrocytes. 

B. basophils. 

C. neutrophils. 

D. albumin. 

Question 3 

Which of the following diagnostic findings is likely to result in the most serious brain insult? 

Answers: 

A. Moderate decrease in brain tissue volume secondary to a brain tumor removal 

B. High intracellular concentration of glutamate 

C. Increased ICP accompanied by hyperventilation 

D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) that equals intracranial pressure (ICP) 

Question 4 

Which of the following patients would be most likely to be experiencing an increase in renal erythropoietin production? 

Answers: 

A. A 70-year-old woman admitted with dehydration secondary to an overdose of her potassium-wasting diuretic 

B. A 21-year-old man with acute blood loss secondary to a motor vehicle accident 3 hours prior 

C. A 68-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera 

D. A 71-year-old smoker admitted to hospital with exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) 

Question 5 

A college student has been experiencing frequent headaches that he describes as throbbing and complaining of difficulty concentrating while studying. Upon cerebral angiography, he is found to have an arteriovenous malformation. Which of the following pathophysiological concepts is likely responsible for his symptoms? 

Answers: 

A. Localized ischemia with areas of necrosis noted on CT angiography 

B. High pressure and local hemorrhage of the venous system 

C. Hydrocephalus and protein in the cerebral spinal fluid 

D. Increased tissue perfusion at the site of the malformation 

Question 6 

A group of nursing students were studying for their pathophysiology exam by quizzing each other about disorders of WBCs and lymphoid tissue. When asked what the first chromosomal abnormality that identified cancer was, one student correctly answered Answers: 

A. interleukin cells. 

B. Philadelphia. 

C. PSA. 

D. BRCA-1. 

Question 7 

A 47-year-old woman was diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 3 years ago and has experienced a progressive onset and severity of complications. She has been admitted to a palliative care unit due to her poor prognosis? What assessments and interventions should the nursing staff of the unit prioritize in their care? 

Answers: 

A. Regular pain assessment and administration of opioid analgesics as needed 

B. Cardiac monitoring and administration of inotropic medications 

C. Assessment and documentation of cognitive changes, including confusion and restlessness 

D. Assessment of swallowing ability and respiratory status 

Question 8 

A 53-year-old man presents with inability to concentrate, itching in his fingers and toes, elevated blood pressure, and unexplained weight loss. He is diagnosed with primary polycythemia. What will be the primary goal of his treatment? 

Answers: 

A. To increase the amount of oxygen distributed by his red blood cells 

B. To reduce the viscosity of his blood 

C. To reduce the mean size of his red cells 

D. To control his hypertension Pathophysiology Nursing Quiz

Question 9 

During a late night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which of the following components of her nervous system contains the highest level of control of her arm and hand action? 

Answers: 

A. Thalamus 

B. Cerebellum 

C. Frontal lobe 

D. Basal ganglia 

Question 10 

The family members of an elderly patient are wondering why his “blood counts” are not rising after his last GI bleed. They state, “He has always bounced back after one of these episodes, but this time it isn’t happening. Do you know why?” The nurse will respond based on which of the following pathophysiological principles? 

Answers: 

A. “Don’t worry about it. We can always give him more blood.” 

B. “Due to stress, the red blood cells of older adults are not replaced as promptly as younger people.” 

C. “Everything slows down when you get older. You just have to wait and see what happens.” 

D. “The doctor may start looking for another cause of his anemia, maybe cancer of the bone.” 

Question 11 

A 44-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with abnormal bleeding and abdominal pain that is later attributed to gallbladder disease. Which of the following diagnoses would the medical team be most justified in suspecting as a cause of the patient’s bleeding? 

Answers: 

A. Hemophilia B 

B. Vitamin K deficiency 

C. Excess calcium 

D. Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) 

Question 12 

Your ESRD patient is receiving 2 units of packed red blood cells for anemia (Hgb of 8.2). Twenty minutes into the first transfusion, the nurse observes the patient has a flushed face, hives over upper body trunk, and is complaining of pain in lower back. His vital signs include pulse rate of 110 and BP drop to 95/56.What is the nurse’s priority action? Answers: 

A. Recheck the type of blood infusing with the chart documentation of patient’s blood type. B. Discontinue the transfusion and begin an infusion of normal saline. 

C. Slow the rate of the blood infusion to 50 mL/hour. 

D. Document the assessment as the only action. 

Question 13 

A 5th grade elementary student asks the school nurse how much blood is in an entire body. The nurse should respond that the average grown-up adult has 

Answers: 

A. 2 to 4 cups of blood in his or her body. 

B. 5 to 6 L of blood throughout his or her body. 

C. 3 pints of blood in total. 

D. 3 to 4 quarts of blood in his or her body. 

Question 14 

The geriatrician providing care for a 74-year-old man with diagnosis of Parkinson disease has recently changed the client’s medication regimen. What is the most likely focus of the pharmacologic treatment of the man’s health problem? 

Answers: 

A. Preventing demyelination of the efferent cerebellar pathways 

B. Preventing axonal degradation of motor neurons 

C. Maximizing acetylcholine release from synaptic vesicles at neuromuscular junctions 

D. Increasing the functional ability of the underactive dopaminergic system 

Question 15 

A student makes the statement to a colleague, “Blood plasma is essentially just a carrier for the formed elements like red blood cells and white blood cells.”What would be the most accurate response to this statement? 

Answers: 

A. “Not really. Plasma also contributes to the processes of protein synthesis and hematopoiesis.” 

B. “Actually, plasma plays a significant role in nutrient and waste transport.” 

C. “Actually, plasma is integral to the proper function of the liver and maintenance of acid–base balance.” 

D. “That’s not really true. Plasma is crucial in the immune and inflammatory responses.” 

Question 16 

Several months ago, a 20-year-old male suffered a spinal cord injury brought about by a snowboard trick gone wrong. The lasting effects of his injury include a flaccid bowel and bladder and the inability to obtain an erection. While sensation has been completely preserved in his legs and feet, his motor function is significantly impaired. What type of incomplete spinal cord injury has the man most likely experienced? 

Answers: 

A. Central cord syndrome 

B. Conus medullaris syndrome 

C. Brown-Séquard syndrome 

D. Anterior cord syndrome 

Question 17 

A client with a gastrointestinal bleed secondary to alcohol abuse and a hemoglobin level of 5.8 g/dL has been ordered a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The client possesses type B antibodies but lacks type D antigens on his red cells. Transfusion of which of the following blood types would be least likely to produce a transfusion reaction?

Answers: 

A. A– 

B. A 

C. B– 

D. B 

Question 18 

Which of the following clients’ signs and symptoms would allow a clinician to be most justified in ruling out stroke as a cause? An adult 

Answers: 

A. has vomited and complained of a severe headache. 

B. states that his left arm and leg are numb, and gait is consequently unsteady. 

C. has experienced a sudden loss of balance and slurred speech. 

D. has had a gradual onset of weakness, headache, and visual disturbances over the last 2 days. 

Question 19 

Amniocentesis has suggested that a couple’s first child will be born with sickle cell disease. The parents are unfamiliar with the health problem, and their caregiver is explaining the complexities. Which of the following statements by the parents would suggest a need for further teaching or clarification? Pathophysiology Nursing Quiz

Answers: 

A. “Our baby’s red cells are prone to early destruction because of his or her weak membranes.” 

B. “Our son or daughter likely won’t show the effects of sickling until he or she is school-aged because of the different hemoglobin in babies.”

C. “Not all of his or her red cells will be sickled, but low oxygen levels can cause them to become so.” 

D. “Sickled cells can block his or her blood vessels, especially in the abdomen, chest, and bones.” 

Question 20 

During science class, a student asks, “What’s the difference between plasma and serum in the blood?” The nurse responds that the primary difference between plasma and serum is that plasma contains 

Answers: 

A. hydrogen ions. 

B. heparin. 

C. white blood cells. 

D. fibrinogen. 

Question 21 

During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the patient has had Guillain-Barré syndrome in his medical history. The patient asks, “What is that?” How should the nursing student reply? 

Answers: 

A. “A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body that may even involve the respiratory muscles” 

B. “Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot” 

C. “A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker” 

D. “Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot, and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well” 

Question 22 

A 22-year-old female college student is shocked to receive a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What are the etiology and most likely treatment for her health problem? 

Answers: 

A. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy 

B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins 

C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment 

D. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids 

Question 23 

A baseball player was hit in the head with a bat during practice. In the emergency department, the physician tells the family that he has a “coup”injury. How will the nurse explain this to the family so they can understand? 

Answers: 

A. “It’s like squeezing an orange so tight that the juice runs out of the top.” 

B. “When the bat hit his head, his neck jerked backward causing injury to the spine.” 

C. “Your son has a contusion of the brain at the site where the bat hit his head.” 

D. “Your son has a huge laceration inside his brain where the bat hit his skull.” 

Question 24 

Which of the following glycoproteins is responsible for treating such diseases as bone marrow failure following chemotherapy and hematopoietic neoplasms such as leukemia? Answers: 

A. Growth factors and cytokines 

B. T lymphocytes and natural killer cells 

C. Neutrophils and eosinophils 

D. Natural killer cells and granulocytes

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Question 25 

While being on subcutaneous heparin injections for deep vein thrombosis during her latter pregnancy, a patient begins to experience major side effects. Her OB-GYN physician has called in a specialist who thinks that the patient is experiencing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. The nurse should anticipate which of the following orders? 

Answers: 

A. Immediately discontinue the heparin therapy 

B. Switch to Coumadin 2.5 mg once/day 

C. Decrease the dose of heparin from 5000 units b.i.d to 3000 units b.i.d 

D. Infuse FFP stat 

Question 26 

Which of the following individuals would most likely experience global ischemia to his or her brain? 

Answers: 

A. A woman who is being brought to hospital by ambulance following suspected carbon monoxide poisoning related to a faulty portable heater 

B. A male client who has just had an ischemic stroke confirmed by CT of his head 

C. A woman who has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected intracranial bleed 

D. A man who has entered cardiogenic shock following a severe myocardial infarction 

Question 27 

A new mother and father are upset that their 2-day-old infant is requiring phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia. The pediatrician who has followed the infant since birth is explaining the multiplicity of factors that can contribute to high serum bilirubin levels in neonates. Which of the following factors would the physician be most likely to rule out as a contributor? 

Answers: 

A. Transitioning of hemoglobin F (HbF) to hemoglobin A (HbA) 

B. Hepatic immaturity of the infant Pathophysiology Nursing Quiz

C. Hypoxia 

D. The fact that the infant is being breast-fed 

Question 28 

A 14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following pathophysiological phenomena is most responsible for his symptoms? 

Answers: 

A. Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genome of others. 

B. The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is lysing many of the boy’s neutrophils. 

C. The virus responsible for mononucleosis inhibits the maturation of myeloblasts into promyelocytes. 

D. The EBV inhibits the maturation of white cells within his peripheral lymph nodes. 

Question 29 

A 16-year-old female has been brought to her primary care physician by her mother due to the girl’s persistent sore throat and malaise. Which of the following facts revealed in the girl’s history and examination would lead the physician to rule out infectious mononucleosis? 

Answers: 

A. Chest auscultation reveals crackles in her lower lung fields bilaterally. 

B. Her liver and spleen are both enlarged. 

C. Blood work reveals an increased white blood cell count. 

D. The girl has a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) and has enlarged lymph nodes. 

Question 30 

A 30-year-old woman who has given birth 12 hours prior is displaying signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The client’s husband is confused as to why a disease of coagulation can result in bleeding. Which of the nurse’s following statements best characterizes DIC? 

Answers: 

A. “The same hormones and bacteria that cause clotting also cause bleeding.” 

B. “Massive clotting causes irritation, friction, and bleeding in the small blood vessels.” 

C. “So much clotting takes place that there are no available clotting components left, and bleeding ensues.” 

D. “Excessive activation of clotting causes an overload of vital organs, resulting in bleeding.” 

Question 31 

A 20-year-old has been diagnosed with an astrocytic brain tumor located in the brain stem. Which of the following statements by the oncologist treating the client is most accurate? 

Answers: 

A. “Our treatment plan will depend on whether your tumor is malignant or benign.” 

B. “This is likely a result of a combination of heredity and lifestyle.” 

C. “The major risk that you face is metastases to your lungs, liver, or bones.” 

D. “Your prognosis will depend on whether we can surgically resect your tumor.” 

Question 32 

A patient diagnosed with low-risk chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) has recently developed thrombocytopenia. One of the medications utilized to treat this would be Answers: 

A. cisplatin, a chemotherapeutic. 

B. vincristine, a Vinca alkaloid. 

C. dexamethasone, a corticosteroid. 

D. doxorubicin, a cytotoxic antibiotic. 

Question 33 

Two nursing students are attempting to differentiate between the presentations of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Which of the students’ following statements best captures an aspect of the two health problems? Answers: 

A. “ITP can be either inherited or acquired, and if it’s acquired, it involves an enzyme deficiency.” 

B. “Both of them involve low platelet counts, but in TTP, there can be more, not less, hemostasis. 

C. “TTP can be treated with plasmapheresis, but ITP is best addressed with transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.” 

D. “Both diseases can result from inadequate production of thrombopoietin by megakaryocytes.” 

Question 34 

A physician is explaining to a 40-year-old male patient the importance of completing his course of antibiotics for the treatment of tuberculosis. The physician explains the damage that could occur to lung tissue by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the physician’s explanation? 

Answers: 

A. Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation. 

B. Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens. 

C. Macrophages form a capsule around the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas. 

D. Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis. 

Question 35 

A teenager, exposed to West Nile virus a few weeks ago while camping with friends, is admitted with headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity. The teenager is also displaying some lethargy and disorientation. The nurse knows which of the following medical diagnoses listed below may be associated with these clinical manifestations?

Answers: 

A. Encephalitis 

B. Lyme disease 

C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever 

D. Spinal infection 

Question 36 

A patient has been diagnosed with anemia. The physician suspects an immune hemolytic anemia and orders a Coombs test. The patient asks the nurse what this test will tell the doctor. The nurse replies, 

Answers: 

A. “They are looking for the presence of antibody or complement on the surface of the RBC.” 

B. “They will look at your RBCs under a microscope to see if they have an irregular shape (poikilocytosis).” 

C. “They will wash your RBCs and then mix the cells with a reagent to see if they clump together.” 

D. “They will be looking to see if you have enough ferritin in your blood.” 

Question 37 

A 29-year-old construction worker got a sliver under his fingernail 4 days ago. The affected finger is now reddened, painful, swollen, and warm to touch. Which of the following hematological processes is most likely occurring in the bone marrow in response to the infection? 

Answers: 

A. Phagocytosis by myelocytes 

B. Increased segmented neutrophil production 

C. High circulatory levels of myeloblasts 

D. Proliferation of immature neutrophils 

Question 38 

A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy’s spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate? Pathophysiology Nursing Quiz

Answers: 

A.“We think that his spleen is inhibiting the production of platelets by his bone marrow.” 

B.“We believe that your son’s spleen is causing the destruction of many of his blood platelets, putting him at a bleeding risk.” 

C.“Your son’s spleen is holding on to too many of his platelets, so they’re not available for clotting.” 

D.“Your son’s spleen is inappropriately filtering out the platelets from his blood and keeping them from normal circulation.” 

Question 39 A nurse practitioner is providing care for a client with low levels of the plasma protein gamma globulin. The nurse would recognize that the client is at risk of developing which of the following health problems? 

Answers: 

A. Anemia 

B. Blood clots 

C. Jaundice 

D. Infections 

Question 40 

A 32-year-old woman presents at her neighborhood health clinic complaining of weakness and a feeling of abdominal fullness. She reports that 6 months earlier she noticed that she had difficulty in maintaining the high level of energy she has relied on during her aerobic workouts over the past few years. Because she felt that she was in overall good health, but knew that women often need additional iron, she added a multiple vitamin with iron and some meat and leafy greens to her diet. She followed her plan carefully but had no increase in energy. Upon examination, her spleen is noted to be enlarged. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause? 

Answers: 

A. CLL 

B. Accelerated CML 

C. Infectious mononucleosis 

D. Stage A Hodgkin disease 

Question 41 

A nurse is providing care for several patients on an acute medical unit of a hospital.Which of the following patients would be most likely to benefit from hematopoietic growth factors? 

Answers: 

A. A 61-year-old female patient with end-stage renal cancer 

B. A 55-year-old obese male patient with peripheral neuropathy secondary to diabetes 

C. A 51-year-old female patient with liver failure secondary to hepatitis 

D. A 44-year-old man with a newly diagnosed brain tumor 

Question 42 

Misinterpreting her physician’s instructions, a 69-year-old woman with a history of peripheral artery disease has been taking two 325 mg tablets of aspirin daily. How has this most likely affected her hemostatic status? 

Answers: 

A. The binding of an antibody to platelet factor IV produces immune complexes. 

B. The patient’s prostaglandin (TXA2) levels are abnormally high. 

C. Irreversible acetylation of platelet cyclooxygenase activity has occurred. 

D. She is at risk of developing secondary immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). 

Question 43 Which of the following teaching points would be most appropriate with a client who has a recent diagnosis of von Willebrand disease? Pathophysiology Nursing Quiz

Answers: 

A. “Make sure that you avoid taking aspirin.” 

B. “Your disease affects your platelet function rather than clot formation.” 

C. “Clotting factor VIII can help your body compensate for the difficulty in clotting.” 

D. “It’s important that you avoid trauma.” 

Question 44 

A nurse at a long-term care facility provides care for an 85-year-old man who has had recent transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Which of the following statements best identifies future complications associated with TIAs? TIAs 

Answers: 

A. are caused by small bleeds that can be a warning sign of an impending stroke. 

B. are a relatively benign sign that necessitates monitoring but not treatment. 

C. are an accumulation of small deficits that may eventually equal the effects of a full CVA. D. resolve rapidly but may place the client at an increased risk for stroke. 

Question 45 

Following a motor vehicle accident 3 months prior, a 20-year-old female who has been in a coma since her accident has now had her condition declared a persistent vegetative state. How can her care providers most accurately explain an aspect of her situation to her parents? 

Answers: 

A. “If you or the care team notices any spontaneous eye opening, then we will change our treatment plan.” 

B. “Your daughter has lost all her cognitive functions as well as all her basic reflexes.” 

C. “Though she still goes through a cycle of sleeping and waking, her condition is unlikely to change.” 

D. “Your daughter’s condition is an unfortunate combination with total loss of consciousness but continuation of all other normal brain functions.” 

Question 46 

A couple who is expecting their first child has been advised by friends to consider harvesting umbilical cord blood in order to have a future source of stem cells. The couple has approached their caregiver with this request and is seeking clarification of exactly why stem cells are valuable and what they might expect to gain from harvesting it. How can their caregiver best respond to the couple’s enquiry? Stem cells can 

Answers: 

A. “be used as source of reserve cells for the entire blood production system.” 

B. “help treat some cancers and anemias, but they must come from your child himself or herself.” 

C. “be used to regenerate damaged organs should the need ever arise.” 

D. “help correct autoimmune diseases and some congenital defects.” 

Question 47 A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy’s spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate? 

Answers: 

A. “Ferritin is a protein–iron complex that allows your red blood cells to make use of the iron that you consume in your diet.” 

B. “Ferritin is the activated and usable form of iron that your red blood cells can use to transport oxygen.” 

C. “Ferritin is the form of iron that is transported in your blood plasma to red blood cells that need it.” 

D. “Ferritin is a stored form of iron that indirectly shows me whether you would benefit from iron pills.”  Pathophysiology Nursing Quiz

Question 48 

A 13-year-old African American boy comes to the ER complaining of fatigue and a rapid heartbeat. In conversation with the father, it becomes apparent to you that the boy has grown 2 inches in the previous 5 months. What is the first problem the health care team would attempt to rule out? 

Answers: 

A. Aplastic anemia 

B. Sickle cell anemia 

C. Thalassemia 

D. Iron deficiency anemia 

Question 49 

In which of the following patients, would diagnostic investigations least likely reveal increased thrombopoietin production? 

Answers: 

A. A 55-year-old man with dehydration secondary to Crohn disease 

B. An 81-year-old woman with diagnoses of rheumatoid arthritis and failure to thrive 

C. A 66-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases 

D. A 21-year-old woman awaiting bone marrow transplant for myelogenous leukemia 

Question 50 

A hospital laboratory technologist is analyzing the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient. Which of the following statements best reflects an aspect of the platelets that would constitute part of the CBC? 

Answers: 

A. New platelets are released from the bone marrow into circulation. 

B. The half-life of a platelet is typically around 8 to 12 days. 

C. Platelets originate with granulocyte colony–forming units (CFU). 

D. The α-granules of platelets contribute primarily to vasoconstriction Pathophysiology Nursing Quiz.

Many genitourinary (GU) disorders such as kidney disease begin developing during childhood and adolescence (Johns Hopkins Children’s Center, 2010). This early onset of disease makes it essential for you, as the advanced practice nurse caring for pediatric patients, to identify potential signs and symptoms.

Although some pediatric GU disorders require long-term treatment and management, other disorders such as bedwetting or urinary tract infections are more common and frequently require only minor interventions.

In your role with pediatric patients, you must evaluate symptoms and determine whether to treat patients or refer them for specialized care. For this Discussion, consider potential diagnoses, treatment, and/or referral options for the patients in the following three case studies.

Case Study 1

You see a 3-year-old with a 2-day history of complaints of dysuria with frequent episodes of enuresis despite potty training about 7 months ago. She is afebrile and denies vomiting. Physical examination is normal. Dipstick voided urine analysis reveals: specific gravity 1.015, Protein 1+ non-hemolyzed blood, 1+ nitrites, 1+ leukocytes, and glucose-negative.

Case Study 2

Mark is a 15-year-old with complaint of acute left scrotal pain with nausea. The pain began approximately 6 hours ago as a dull ache and has gradually worsened to where he can no longer stand without doubling over. He is afebrile and in marked pain. Physical exam is negative except for elevation of the left testicle, diffuse scrotal edema, and the presence of a blue dot sign DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT OF GENITOURINARY DISORDERS.

Case Study 3

Maya is a 5-year-old who presents for a well-child visit. She is a healthy child with no complaints. Physical examination is normal. Routine urinalysis indicates 2+ proteinuria; specific gravity 1.020; negative for glucose, blood, leukocytes, and nitrites. Her blood pressure is normal, and she is at the 60th percentile for height and weight.

To prepare:

• Review “Genitourinary Disorders” in the Burns et al. text.
• Review and select one of the three provided case studies. Analyze the patient information.
• Consider a differential diagnosis for the patient in the case study you selected. Think about the most likely diagnosis for the patient.
• Think about a treatment and management plan for the patient. Be sure to consider appropriate dosages for any recommended pharmacologic and/or non-pharmacologic treatments.
• Consider strategies for educating patients and families on the treatment and management of the genitourinary disorder.

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By Day 3

Post an explanation of the differential diagnosis for the patient in the case study you selected.

Explain which is the most likely diagnosis for the patient and why. Include an explanation of unique characteristics of the disorder you identified as the primary diagnosis.

Then, explain a treatment and management plan for the patient, including appropriate dosages for any recommended treatments.

Finally, explain strategies for educating patients and families on the treatment and management of the genitourinary disorder. DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT OF GENITOURINARY DISORDERS